Combat Medical Advanced Skills Training 1

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  1. The primary airway adjunct used in self-aid is the:

    2. Your answer:
    oral pharyngeal airway
    endotracheal tube
    nasopharyngeal airway
    combitube

  2. The most common complication associated with inserting an NPA is:

    3. Your answer:
    bloody nose
    gagging
    vomiting
    deviated septum

  3. The second leading cause of preventable death on the battlefield is due to:

    4. Your answer:
    airway compromise
    tension pneumothorax
    closed head injury
    extremity hemorrhage

  4. In combat, when under enemy fire, the best way to control life-threatening extremity hemorrhage is:

    5. Your answer:
    elevation
    QuickClot powder
    tourniquets
    direct pressure

  5. Which of the following is an indication for an emergency surgical airway (cricothyrotomy)?

    6. Your answer:
    fractured pelvis
    maxillofacial trauma
    myocardial infarction
    closed head trauma

  6. The bone recommended for an intraocceous infusion with the F.A.S.T. 1 is the:

    7. Your answer:
    fibula
    tibia
    sternum
    clavicle

  7. When transporting a hypovolemic casualty by air they can become _______ quite easily.

    8. Your answer:
    allergic
    hyperthermic
    hypertensive
    hypothermic

  8. You should plan that a Priority 1 Urgent casualty will be evacuation in ____ hours.

    9. Your answer:
    2
    3
    4
    6

  9. When processing EPWs, you should perform the "5 S"s. Which of the folloiwng is NOT on of the 5 Ss?

    10. Your answer:
    silence
    speed
    security
    safeguard

  10. During a foot patrol in Fallujah a soldier is hit by small arms fire and sustains a gunshot wound to the left side of their neck. The wound appears to be spurting blood. When you reach the casualty you apply direct pressure and a ____________ to control the bleeding.

    11. Your answer:
    HemCon bandage
    Traumadex
    Factor VII
    QuikClot powder

  11. You have a casualty in severe pain and want to provide Morphine for pain control The best way to give morphine to maximize it s effect is by the _______ route.

    12. Your answer:
    IV
    IM
    Oral
    SQ

  12. On what part of the body do the majority of combat wounds occur?

    13. Your answer:
    extremities
    head
    chest
    abdomen

  13. An alternate location for Needle Chest Decompression is the:

    14. Your answer:
    6th ICS MCL
    7th ICS MAL
    1st ICS MCL
    4th ICS AAL

  14. During a dismounted operations in Baghdad your unit comes under attack by a large enemy force. Your initial reaction to the attack should be to:

    15. Your answer:
    call for artillery support
    call for air support
    treat any casualties with airway problems
    take cover and return fire

  15. In principles of fluid resuscitation, which vital signs do we use to determine who needs IV fluids?

    16. Your answer:
    temperature
    pulse oxgenation percentage
    blood pressure
    pulse

  16. You have a casualty who suffered facial and inhalation burns. After performing an emergency surgical cricothyrotomy, the casualty only has breath sounds on the right side. This is probably due to:

    17. Your answer:
    right main stem bronchus intubation
    left main stem bronchus intubation
    tension pneumothorax
    right side pneumothorax

  17. The majority of trauma cases in the civilian community involve which type of trauma?

    18. Your answer:
    blunt trauma
    burns
    penetrating trauma
    poisoning

  18. Which blood component is activated when the blood vessel wall is injured and begins the clotting process?

    19. Your answer:
    platelets
    plasma
    white blood cells
    red blood cells

  19. When applying a tourniquet to a severely bleeding extremity wound the tourniquet would always be placed ____ to the wound.

    20. Your answer:
    medial
    proximal
    distal
    lateral

  20. Which of the following is NOT a triage category?

    21. Your answer:
    immediate
    expectant
    major
    delayed

  21. One factor that influences the soldier medic's ability to provide care in combat is:

    22. Your answer:
    cold weather
    cost of movement
    available vehicles
    enemy fire

  22. The use of blood pressure cuffs and stethoscopes in combat are often not very effective. In combat we evaluate the need for fluid resuscitation by palpating and assessing for:

    23. Your answer:
    radial pulse and normal mentation
    carotid pulse and normal mentation
    tibial pulse and normal mentation
    femoral pulse and normal mentation

  23. All U.S. medical facilities and transports display a distinctive emblem of the Geneva Conventions, this emblem consists of a:

    24. Your answer:
    white crose on a red background
    red cross on a green background
    red cross on a white background
    blue cross on a gold background

  24. When evaluating a student on a trauma laned, if the student performs a treatment correctly the casualty should:

    25. Your answer:
    deterirate
    remain unchanged
    expire
    improve

  25. Before you attempt to start an IV for fluid resuscitation, your priority should be to:

    26. Your answer:
    sterilize the IV site
    stop the bleeding
    prepare fluid
    ensure adequate blood pressure

  26. Gatifloxacin is an effective medication used to treat:

    27. Your answer:
    pain
    hypovolemia
    infection
    shock

  27. The flow rate for the F.A.S.T. 1 sternal I/O device when used with gravity flow is _____ per minute.

    28. Your answer:
    30ml
    70ml
    90ml
    120ml

  28. The three phases of care in TC-3 are:

    29. Your answer:
    care under fire, tactical evacuation care, field medical care
    combat casualty evacuation care, care under fire, tactical field care
    tactical field care, tactical evacuation care, tactical medical care
    casevac care, tactical care under fire, field combat care

  29. What is the primary osmotic agent in Lactated Ringers solution?

    30. Your answer:
    dextrose
    hetasarch
    sodium
    potassium

  30. One liter of Hextend is is equivalent to how many liters of Ringers in fluid resuscitation?

    31. Your answer:
    3-4
    4-5
    6-8
    10-12

  31. The modern tourniquet device recently approved for use by all soldiers on the battlefield is the:

    32. Your answer:
    parsons windlass tourniquet
    combat application tourniquet
    cravat and windlass tourniquet
    ranger ratchet tourniquet

  32. The indication for a needle chest decompression in a casualty with a penetrating chest wound is:

    33. Your answer:
    absent radial pulse
    absent breath sounds
    progressive respiratory distress
    low blood pressure

  33. During which phase of care is oxygen first available?

    34. Your answer:
    combat casualty evacuation care
    tactical medical care
    care under fire
    tactical field care

  34. When inserting the Combitube, which balloon is inflated first?

    35. Your answer:
    green
    blue
    white
    red

  35. It is appropriate to loosen a tourniquet when evacuation is delayed and:

    36. Your answer:
    the tactical situation allows
    the bleeding has stopped
    the IV has been started
    you should never loosen a tourniquet

  36. A casualty sustains a shrapnel wound to the lower jaw and mouth. After treatment has been accomplished, in what position would you evacuate this casualty?

    37. Your answer:
    recovery
    trendelenburg
    fowler's
    supine

  37. When casualties become hypothermic secondary to blood loss, changes occur in their blood that will prevent it from:

    38. Your answer:
    carrying nutrients
    clotting
    fighting infections
    carrying oxygen

  38. While traveling in a convoy the vehicle behind you is struck by an IED. One of the casualties has a severe maxillofacial injury. Their airway remains obstructed and you are unable to ventilate them. The airway of choice for this casualty is a:

    39. Your answer:
    NPA
    surgical cricothyrotomy
    endotracheal tube
    combitube

  39. When performing a needle chest decompression, we insert the needle over the top of the tib to avoid damage to the ______, which runs along the bottom of the rib.

    40. Your answer:
    cartilage bridge
    intercostal muscle
    parietal pleura
    neurovascular bundle

  40. A rare but serious complication of inserting a combitube is:

    41. Your answer:
    cardiac tamponade
    increased intracanial pressure
    abnormal heart rhythm
    ruptured esophagus

  41. An alternative narcotic to morphine, for pain control, when no IV line is available is:

    42. Your answer:
    ketamine
    phenergan
    narcan
    fentanyl

  42. The ability to sort casualties during a MASCAL event is called:

    43. Your answer:
    triage
    categorizing
    labeling
    sorting

  43. The material in the HemCon Bandage is made from:

    44. Your answer:
    shrimp shells
    volcanic pumice
    oyster shells
    super glue

  44. The colloid fluid recommended for use in the pre-hospital phase of care on the battlefield is:

    45. Your answer:
    albumin
    hextend
    fresh frozen plasma
    dextran

  45. The most common cause of airway obstruction is:

    46. Your answer:
    foreign body
    dentures
    vomitus
    tongue

  46. Aspirin is not recommended for use prior to a combat operations because it affects:

    47. Your answer:
    allergic reactions
    castrointestinal upset
    antibiotic use
    blood clotting

  47. When using Morphine for pain control it is important for the soldier medic to:

    48. Your answer:
    distribute the morphine to all soldiers
    give enough to put the patient to sleep
    document amount and time given
    never give morphine as it is too danderous

  48. What gauge needle catheter is recommended for peripheral IV access in TC-3?

    49. Your answer:
    14 ga.
    16 ga.
    18 ga.
    20 ga.

  49. CPR may be benefical for which of the following conditions:

    50. Your answer:
    maxillofacial wounds
    penetrating chest wound
    near drowning
    traumatic amputation of the leg

  50. By whose authority may detainees be transferred out of country.

    51. Your answer:
    Secretary of the Army
    Secretary of Defense
    Chairman of the Joint Chiefs
    theather commander

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