Combat Medic Advanced Skills Training (CMAST) Qui

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  1. CPR may be beneficial for which of the following conditions:
  2. Your answer:
    maxillofacial wounds
    electrocution
    traumatic amputation of the leg
    penetrating chest wound


  3. The primary focus of care in the "Care Under Fire" phase is:
  4. Your answer:
    airway control
    C-spine control
    hemorrhage control
    breathing control


  5. The primary airway for a casualty with severe maxillofacial trauma with disrupted facial anatomy is a/an:
  6. Your answer:
    ETT
    Combitube
    Surgical Cricothyrotomy
    NPA


  7. The primary tool to control life-threatening extremity hemorrhage in the "Care Under Fire" phase is a properly applied:
  8. Your answer:
    Tourniquet
    HemCon Bandage
    Field dressing
    Emergency Trauma Dressing


  9. The criteria for starting fluid resuscitation in a combat casualty are:
  10. Your answer:
    Altered mental status, rapid radial pulse
    Absent radial pulse, altered mental status
    Lowered blood pressure, rapid radial pulse
    Absent radial pulse, increased blood pressure


  11. What is the primary anatomical location for a needle chest decompression?
  12. Your answer:
    5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line
    4th intercostal space, mid-axillary line
    2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line
    2nd intercostal space, left sternal border


  13. What is the equivalent systolic blood pressure if the casualty only has a carotid pulse?
  14. Your answer:
    80 mmHg
    90 mmHg
    70 MMHg
    60 mmHg


  15. What gauge needle catheter is recommended for for peripheral IV access according to the tenets of TC-3?
  16. Your answer:
    16 ga.
    14 ga.
    18 ga.
    20 ga.


  17. Which is the oral antibiotic recommended for use in wounded casualties in combat?
  18. Your answer:
    Ertapenum
    Cefotetan
    Gatifloxacin
    Penicillin


  19. The active material in the HemCon Chitosan bandage is made up of:
  20. Your answer:
    Shrimp shells
    Volcanic pumice
    Super glue
    Oyster shells


  21. The leading cause of preventable death on the battlefield is:
  22. Your answer:
    Airway occlusion
    Hemorrhage
    Tension pneumothorax
    Head injuries


  23. When using morphine for pain control, it is important for the soldier medic to:
  24. Your answer:
    Distribute the morphine to all soldiers
    Document amount and time given
    Never give morphine as it is too dangerous
    Give enough to put the casualty to sleep


  25. Which device is recommended for a sternal IO line?
  26. Your answer:
    SLOW-2
    BIG
    F.A.S.T. 1
    EX-IO


  27. In which phase of care is the majority of care provided?
  28. Your answer:
    Care Under Fire
    Combat Casualty Evacuation Care
    Casevac Care
    Tactical Field Care


  29. An occlusive dressing is used for which type of wound:
  30. Your answer:
    Thigh wound
    Abdominal wound
    Chest wound
    Head wound


  31. The combat pill pack contains which two types of medication?
  32. Your answer:
    Pain meds and Phenergan
    Antibiotics and antacids
    Pain meds and anti-inflammatory meds
    Antibiotics and pain meds


  33. Aspirin is not recommended for use prior to a combat operations because it affects:
  34. Your answer:
    Antibiotic use
    Blood clotting
    Allergic reactions
    Gastrointestinal upset


  35. The primary side effect of the use of QuikClot is:
  36. Your answer:
    Heat
    Increased bleeding
    Decreased bleeding
    Allergic reaction


  37. The medication used to counteract an overdose of morphine?
  38. Your answer:
    Gatifloxacin
    Narcan
    Phenergan
    Ertapenum


  39. The preventable causes of death in combat are:
  40. Your answer:
    Penetrating head wounds, tension pheumothorax, extremity hemorrhage
    Mutiliating blast injuries, airway compromise, extremity hemorrhage
    Extremity hemorrhage, tension pneumothorax, airway compromise
    Penetrating head wounds, tension pneumothorax, torso wounds


  41. The leading cause of wounds in combat is:
  42. Your answer:
    Shrapnel wounds
    Primary blast injuries
    Burns
    Bullet wounds


  43. The most common cause of airway obstruction is:
  44. Your answer:
    Vomitus
    Dentures
    Foreign body
    Tongue


  45. One contraindication for using the Combitube is:
  46. Your answer:
    Respiratory arrest
    Intact gag reflex
    Closed head trauma
    Cardiac arrest


  47. The cricothyroid membrane is located between the ______ and _____ cartilages?
  48. Your answer:
    Cricoid and laryngeal
    Thyroid-laryngeal
    Thyroid and cricoid
    Cricoid and hypid


  49. An "Asherman Chest Seal" is used to treat:
  50. Your answer:
    Penetrating chest injuries
    Penetrating lower abdominal wounds
    Fractured ribs
    Flail chest injury


  51. The colloid fluid recommended for use in the pre-hospital phase of care on the battlefield is:
  52. Your answer:
    Albumin
    Hextend
    Dextran
    Fresh frozen plasma


  53. The equivalent blood pressure for a radial pulse is:
  54. Your answer:
    50 mmHg
    60 mmHg
    70 mmHg
    80 mmHg


  55. The "vicious triad" of casualties who become hypothermic include all of the following but:
  56. Your answer:
    Acidosis
    Coagulopathy
    Hypothermia
    Photophobia


  57. The type of litter that folds out into a full size conventional litter is called a:
  58. Your answer:
    SKED litter
    Maverick litter
    Asherman litter
    Talon litter


  59. The ability to sort casualties during a MASCAL event is called:
  60. Your answer:
    Triage
    Sorting
    Labeling
    Categorizing


  61. The body of rules in war time that protect personnel no longer participating in hostilities are called:
  62. Your answer:
    International Humanitarian Law
    Red Cross
    Switzerland Conventions
    Frankfurt Accord


  63. You are treating a casualty with a penetrating chest wound. You have placed an occlusive dressing over the wound. Several minutes has passed. The casualty contines to have increased trouble breathing, you suspect this may be due to _____________?
  64. Your answer:
    Airway obstruction
    Tension Pneumothorax
    Allergic reaction
    Hemorrhage


  65. During an attack on a convoy, the vehicle in front of you overturns. The only injured soldier complains of pain in both hips and is becomng more shocky (rapid and weak radial pulse). On exam, he has extreme tenderness with palpation of his iliac crests. The best item in your ambulance to treat this conditions is:
  66. Your answer:
    Sam Splint
    Reel Splint
    Sager Spline
    PASG


  67. When carrying morphine for pain control you must also carry _______ to counteract an overdose.
  68. Your answer:
    Benadryl
    Narcan
    Phenergan
    Epinephrine


  69. When would you plan an alternate antibotic for a soldier allergic to the antibiotic carried by the soldier medic?
  70. Your answer:
    Post deployment phase
    Don't give him antibiotics
    Pre-deployment phase
    Only if he needs antibiotics


  71. The third leading cause of preventable death on the battlefield is:
  72. Your answer:
    Airway compromise
    Penetrating chest wounds
    Extremity hemorrhage
    Fractured skull


  73. What is the maximum time a tourniquet can be left on an extremity, before you would NOT consider removing it?
  74. Your answer:
    2 hours
    3 hours
    4 hours
    7 hours


  75. An alternative narcotic to morphine, for pain control, when no IV line is available is:
  76. Your answer:
    Fentanyl
    Narcan
    Phenergan
    Ketamine


  77. Hextend is an excellent fluid to use to treat hypovolemia secondard to blood loss. It stays in the blood vessels longer than crystalloid fluids like Ringers Lactate or Normal Saline. One half liter of Hextend is equivalent to approximately how many liters of crystalloid?
  78. Your answer:
    1
    2
    3
    6


  79. At which level of care are most lives saved in combat?
  80. Your answer:
    Level I
    Level II
    Level III
    Level IV


  81. In which phase of care will we find IV fluid warmers like the Thermal Angel?
  82. Your answer:
    Combat Casualty Evacuation Care
    Care Under Fire
    Combat Medical Care
    Tactical Field Care


  83. You should expect a Category III or Routine evacuation of a casualty to take place within:
  84. Your answer:
    4 hours
    8 hours
    12 hours
    24 hours


  85. What level of medical training is every soldier entering basic training receiving?
  86. Your answer:
    Health Care Specialist
    Combat Lifesaver
    Self-Aid/Buddy-Aid
    Combat Medic


  87. The equipment in the new improved First Aid Kit are designed to treat:
  88. Your answer:
    Poisoning
    Dehydration
    Preventable causes of death
    Burn injuries


  89. Which of the following is the leading cause of death and injury in Iraq today?
  90. Your answer:
    Gunshot wounds
    RPG attacks
    Mortar attacks
    IED attacks


  91. Which of the following injuries should prevent you from inserting an NPA?
  92. Your answer:
    Penetrating chest wound
    Fractured jaw
    Possible c-spine injury
    Fracture of the roof of the mouth


  93. A late physical sign seen in a developing tension pneumothorax is:
  94. Your answer:
    Absent breath sounds
    Dyspnea
    Anxiety
    Tracheal deviation


  95. One of the side effects of morphine that soldier medics need to be concerned about is:
  96. Your answer:
    Respiratory depression
    Increased blood pressure
    Excitement
    Increased intestinal motility


  97. Any soldier who has sustained a penetrating wound in combat should be given:
  98. Your answer:
    Blood transfusion
    Tylenol
    Antibiotics
    IV fluids


  99. The medical standard of care for detainees is:
  100. Your answer:
    The same as for minimally injured
    The same as for local civilians
    The same as for U.S. Forces
    The same as for expectant casualties



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