EFMB Quiz 1

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  1. The brain is protected from injury by:

    2. Your answer:
    The skull, the meninges and the cerebrospinal fluid
    The skull only, and NEITHER the cerebrospinal fluid NOR the meninges
    The skull and the cerebrospinal fluid only, NOT the meninges
    The skull and the meninges only, NOT the cerebrospinal fluid

  2. An impalement injury to the right eye should be treated by:

    3. Your answer:
    Leaving the object in place and bandaging only the wounded eye
    Removing the object and bandaging both eyes
    Leaving the object in place and bandaging both eyes
    Removing the object and bandaging only the wounded eye

  3. The percent of body surface area burned is estimated by using:

    4. Your answer:
    Guestimation
    Guyton's BSA Rule
    Severity classification - ie. first degree, second degree and third degree
    Rule of Nines

  4. Which of the following treatment categories would include patients suffering from partial thickness burns of less than 20% BSA?

    5. Your answer:
    Minimal
    Expectant
    Delayed
    Immediate

  5. Which of the following treatment categories would include patients suffering from a severe penetrating abdominal wound?

    6. Your answer:
    Expectant
    Minimal
    Delayed
    Immediate

  6. What type of spider has a reddish hourglass-shaped figure on the underside of its abdomen?

    7. Your answer:
    Black widow
    Brown recluse
    Tarantula
    Red spinner

  7. Which type of cold injury is a MEDICAL EMERGENCY?

    8. Your answer:
    Frostbite and hypothermia
    Hypothermia
    Frostbite
    No cold injury is a medical emergency

  8. Treatment of frostbite may include:

    9. Your answer:
    Re-warming the affected area by massaging
    Re-warming the affected area with hot water
    Re-warming the area by placing the affected area against a warm body
    Expose the affected area to an open fire

  9. A soldier immersed in water for treatment of heat stroke should remain there until body temperature cools to ____ degrees Fahrenheit.

    10. Your answer:
    100
    95
    102
    98.6

  10. Which type of heat injury is a medical emergency?

    11. Your answer:
    Heat stroke
    Heat cramps
    Heat exhaustion
    Excessive sweating

  11. Pale wet skin, dizziness, extreme thirst and muscle cramps are the signs and symptoms of:

    12. Your answer:
    Excessive sweating
    Heat exhaustion
    Heat stroke
    Heat cramps

  12. Hot food should be kept at or above ____degrees Fahrenheit and cold foods should be kept at or below _____ degrees Fahrenheit.

    13. Your answer:
    145 and 45, respectively
    140 and 35, respectively
    140 and 40, respectively
    145 and 35, respectively

  13. Which statement best describes bandaging eye injuries?

    14. Your answer:
    Bandage both eyes, unless the patient needs to see to exit a hazardous surrounding
    Only the uninjured eye
    Always bandage both eyes
    Only the injured eye needs to be bandaged

  14. Cravats added to the dressing of an open abdominal wound should be tied __________.

    15. Your answer:
    on the same side as the dressing ties
    on top of the dressing
    on the side opposite the dressing ties
    on the patients back

  15. In a mass casualty situation, where would you place a patient with severe abdominal wound and evisceration?

    16. Your answer:
    Routine
    Urgent
    Delayed
    Expectant

  16. What type of seizure is characterized by loss of consciousness and an intense tonic-clonic activity?

    17. Your answer:
    Status epilepticus
    Focal
    Petit mal
    Grand mal

  17. Which technique of opening the airway is the safest if a neck injury is suspected?

    18. Your answer:
    Jaw thrust method
    Jaw thrust-chin lift method
    Head tilt-chin lift method
    Head tilt-neck lift method

  18. Normal capillary refill should take:

    19. Your answer:
    3-4 seconds
    Less than 2 seconds
    6-8 seconds
    4.-5 seconds

  19. The most common type of shock on the battlefield is ________________________.

    20. Your answer:
    Neurogenic
    Septic
    Anaphylactic
    Hypovolemic

  20. To which patient is it OK to give water and food?

    21. Your answer:
    Head wound
    Abdominal wound
    Chest wound patient with difficulty breathing
    Extremity amputation patients

  21. Which choice best describes a comminuted fracture?

    22. Your answer:
    A fracture associated with twisting injuries, the fracture has an appearance of a spring
    The bone is fragmented into more than two pieces (splintered or crushed)
    The fracture crosses the bone at an oblique angle
    The fracture cuts across the bone at right angles to its long axis

  22. Traction splints are used to immobilize and maintain steady traction on the fracture or dislocation of ____________.

    23. Your answer:
    Upper extremities only
    Low extremities only
    Upper and lower extremities
    Thoracic vertebrae

  23. In what type of injury are ligaments partially torn?

    24. Your answer:
    Strain
    Sprain
    Fracture
    Dislocation

  24. How much longer than the patients height should the spine board be?

    25. Your answer:
    The spine board is less than the patient's height
    At least 4 inches
    At least 12 inches
    At least 2 feet

  25. Morphine increases intracranial pressure and decreases the patients level of consciousness and therefore should NOT be given to_________ patients.

    26. Your answer:
    Head injury
    Abdominal injury
    Chest injury
    Pelvis injury

  26. Battle's sign is associated with what type of injury?

    27. Your answer:
    Abdominal injuries
    Pelvis injuries
    Chest injuries
    Closed head injuries

  27. Sick and wounded personnel requiring a routine evacuation should be evacuated within ______ hours.

    28. Your answer:
    8
    24
    12
    6

  28. Which of the following is true regarding impalement injuries?

    29. Your answer:
    Impalement injuries are treated by leaving the impaled object in place and providing a bulky padded dressing around it
    An impaled object through the cheek should be removed before attempting to control the bleeding
    Since there is no danger in perforating an internal organ when there is an impalement injury of an extremity, you should remove the impaled object before applying the dressing
    A and B are correct

  29. Which of the following is true regarding burns?

    30. Your answer:
    Electrical burns require a search for both entry and exit wounds
    Without adequate treatment, patients with 2nd or 3rd degree burns > 20% will still probably be fine
    Oral fluid resuscitation is preferred over IV fluids in burn patients
    Ointments or grease are recommended when dressing burns to ease subsequent removal of the bandage

  30. What is the normal pulse for adults?

    31. Your answer:
    30-50 heartbeats per minute
    120-150 heartbeats per minute
    60-80 heartbeats per minute
    80-100 heartbeats per minute

  31. You come upon a squad of injured soldiers on the battlefield. You begin triage and notice that the first solider will require CPR. What action should you take?

    32. Your answer:
    Triage the other soldiers and then return to this one and initiate CPR
    Immediately initiate CPR
    Start CPR and call for help
    Move on to the other injured patients treat this patient last, he is expectant

  32. A patient with a fractured arm is placed in what triage category?

    33. Your answer:
    Routine
    Delayed
    Immediate
    Minimal

  33. The following principles of triage are correct except:

    34. Your answer:
    Evaluation during triage is meant to discover a condition not to confirm one
    Do the most good for the most number of people
    Saving life takes precedence over saving limb
    The 2 immediate threats to life are burns and hemorrhage

  34. What are the categories of triage?

    35. Your answer:
    Immediate, delayed, minimal and expectant
    Urgent, priority, routine
    self-aid, buddy-aid, resting, and missing
    STAT, routine, and self-aid

  35. During an artillery attack on your position several soldiers experienced a stinging sensation on portions of exposed skin which turns white with a red ring. About thirty minutes later a bump or wheal appears. What chemical agent do you suspect?

    36. Your answer:
    Nerve
    Choking
    Blood
    Blister

  36. Proper disposition of the Field Medical Card of a CRO case would be:

    37. Your answer:
    Becomes part of patients HREC or OTR
    Send to higher headquarters for coding then disposal IAW AR 340-18-9
    Becomes part of patients ITR
    Destroy locally after 3 months

  37. The AN/PRD-27 identifies what type of radiation?

    38. Your answer:
    Alpha and gamma
    Beta and gamma
    Alpha, beta and gamma
    Alpha and beta

  38. Your unit has been exposed to a nuclear burst. What should you use to detect and monitor fallout?

    39. Your answer:
    ABC M11
    AN/PDR-27 or AN/VDR2
    PRC 77
    IM-174 or AN/VDR2

  39. How long should you allow for the IM-174 to warm up?

    40. Your answer:
    2-20 minutes
    No warm up necessary
    5-10 minutes
    1 minute

  40. How is an IM-174 series radiacmeter held during use?

    41. Your answer:
    Eye level
    Waist high
    Neck level
    Chest level

  41. What color change indicates a positive reaction to the nerve agent test spot on the M256?

    42. Your answer:
    Dark red
    Olive-green
    Blue or darker
    Colorless to peach

  42. What color change indicates a positive reaction on the blood agent test spot of the M256 chemical detector kit?

    43. Your answer:
    Colorless to tan
    Olive-green
    Pink to blue
    Colorless to red

  43. What color change indicates a positive reaction on the blister agent test spot of the M256?

    44. Your answer:
    Purple/blue or red/blue
    Olive-green
    Tan
    Colorless to peach

  44. What chemical agents does the M256 detect?

    45. Your answer:
    Blister and nerve only
    Blister, blood and nerve
    Blister and blood only
    Blister only

  45. While decontaminating a piece of equipment some DS2 gets on your skin. What action should you take?

    46. Your answer:
    None
    Blot it off and rise with water
    Wipe if off using the M258A1 decontamination packets
    Let dry and brush it off

  46. What action should you take after spraying DS2 decontamination agent on an area of a vehicle to be decontaminated?

    47. Your answer:
    Allow 45 minutes contact time and then brush off
    Wipe off immediately
    Let dry then dust off area with a brush
    Allow 30 minutes contact time and then rise off

  47. The ABC M11 decontaminating apparatus uses what decontamination compound

    48. Your answer:
    DS2
    STB
    M256
    M258

  48. How many nitrogen-filled cylinders should be used to initially pressurize the ABC M11?

    49. Your answer:
    3
    4
    1
    2

  49. What dry mix compound is used for decontaminating your gear prior to exchanging MOPP gear with a buddy?

    50. Your answer:
    DS2
    STB
    M256
    M258

  50. What word appears on the radiological contamination markers?

    51. Your answer:
    RAD
    FALLOUT
    NUKE
    ATOM

  51. Which one-man carry would you use to transport an unconscious patient up or down stairs?

    52. Your answer:
    Support carry
    Pistol belt carry
    Cradle-drop carry
    Saddleback carry

  52. Which description of MOPP level 3 is correct?

    53. Your answer:
    Overgarments, overboots and gloves worn. Mask carried
    Overgarments, overboots, and mask worn. Gloves carried
    Overgarments, mask and gloves worn. Overboots carried
    Overgarments, overboots, gloves and mask worn

  53. You are probing a path through a minefield. Which of the following is correct:

    54. Your answer:
    probe every 5” across a 1 meter path
    probe every 5” across a 2 meter path
    probe every 2” across a 1 meter path
    probe every 2” across a 2 meter path

  54. When clearing a passage in a minefield, what should you probe the ground with?

    55. Your answer:
    bayonet
    rifle
    rifle
    stick

  55. Which of the following is not correct regarding abdominal wound dressings:

    56. Your answer:
    when applying a dressing to an open abdominal wound position the casualty on his back with his knees bent
    always remove clothing to expose the wound before applying the dressing
    tie the tails of the dressing at the casualty’s side
    do not moisten the dressing before applying to the wound

  56. Your platoon is on an FTX and the commander ask you to check the meal which is in insulated food containers. Your measurement of the milk temperature is 42 degrees Fahrenheit. What action should you recommend to the dining facility?

    57. Your answer:
    Ensure the milk is not served. It should be thrown away
    Cool the milk
    Serve the milk
    Advise the NCOIC of the originating kitchen

  57. After eating in the field dining facility, you notice the garbage pit for the dining facility is 35 meters from the facility. What action, if any, should you recommend to the command?

    58. Your answer:
    None
    Notify the field sanitation team
    Notify the commander
    Notify the NCOIC of the field dining facility

  58. You squad is under heavy ground fire and a casualty must be moved to cover. What carry or drag should you use?

    59. Your answer:
    Pistol-belt drag
    Pack-strap carry
    Pistol-belt carry
    Fireman's carry

  59. While under fire, you hear an explosion and then see a yellow cloud over your position. What should you do first?

    60. Your answer:
    Continue the mission
    Mask
    Give the alarm
    Find overhead cover

  60. What azimuth should you use to express direction measured on a military map?

    61. Your answer:
    Magnetic azimuth
    True azimuth
    North azimuth
    Grid azimuth

  61. At a minimum, how many ties should be used when applying a splint to a fractured tibia?

    62. Your answer:
    2
    4
    6
    3

  62. When splinting a fractured tibia, which of the following is not correct?

    63. Your answer:
    check the pulse before and after applying the splint
    MAST trousers may be used to splint a fractured tibia
    you may elevate the fractured leg once it is splinted to help prevent shock
    the splint must extend beyond the joint above and below the fracture

  63. You are treating a patient for heat exhaustion. Which of the following is the best choice for allowing the patient to drink.

    64. Your answer:
    Allow patient to slowly drink one canteen of cool water over a period of 30-60 minutes.
    The patient should quickly drink 1/2 canteen of salted water and then 1-2 canteens of cool water.
    Encourage the patient to drink as much cool water as possible to replace fluids lost by sweating.
    You may moisten the patient's lips but the patient may not drink any water.

  64. When administering nerve agent antidote, which injector is given first?

    65. Your answer:
    Sodium chloride
    Thiosulfate
    2-PAM chlorine
    Atropine

  65. When administering nerve agent antidote, which injector is given first?

    66. Your answer:
    The large injector with the black end
    The small injector with the green end
    The large injector with the green end
    The small injector with the black end

  66. After 5 minutes of administering one set of nerve agent antidote to yourself you notice that your heart begins to beat rapidly and your mouth becomes dry. What should you do?

    67. Your answer:
    Nothing, this reaction is caused by the antidote
    Administer another set of injectors
    Decon the contaminated skin with the M258A1 decontamination kit
    Quickly administer two more sets of auto-injectors

  67. Which position provides the best protection in a foxhole in the event of a nuclear attack?

    68. Your answer:
    On your back with knees drawn up to chest, hands over eyes
    Curl up on one side, knees drawn to chest, hands over eyes
    On you stomach with knees drawn up to chest, hands on top of your head
    Sitting with knees drawn up to chest, hands over eyes

  68. You are part of a litter team transporting a casualty with a splinted leg. How is the patient transported when going uphill?

    69. Your answer:
    Side ways
    It does not matter
    Legs first
    Head first

  69. Where is the number-one person when preparing to lift a litter?

    70. Your answer:
    At the left side of the patient near the head
    At the right side of the patient near the feet
    At the right side of the patient near the head
    At the left side of the patient near the feet

  70. While passing through a narrow passage using the two-man carry, which configuration is correct for the litter bearers? (Arrow indicates direction of travel)

    71. Your answer:
    1-2-patient-3-4->
    4-1-patient-2-3->
    4-3-patient -2-1-->
    3-2-patient-1-4->

  71. Which carry would be used for fording a stream?

    72. Your answer:
    Four-man carry
    Litter post carry
    Two-man carry
    Over-head carry

  72. Which litter carry is used for transporting the casualty over rough terrain?

    73. Your answer:
    Two-man carry
    Four-man carry
    Over-head carry
    Litter post carry

  73. How long should you wait before testing the chlorine residual after adding chlorine to a 400-gallon water tank?

    74. Your answer:
    10 minutes
    5 minutes
    30 minutes
    immediately after adding the chlorine

  74. Which of the following latrines would you use when the ground is too hard or the water table is too high?

    75. Your answer:
    Straddle-trench latrine
    Cat-hole latrine
    Burn-out latrine
    Deep-pit latrine

  75. Which type of latrine would be used for a 1-3 day bivouac?

    76. Your answer:
    Cat-hole latrine
    Deep-pit latrine
    Pail latrine
    Straddle-trench latrine

  76. You should provide enough latrines for use by what percentage of the male and female soldiers?

    77. Your answer:
    3% males, 5% females
    3% males, 6% females
    4% males, 5% females
    4% males, 6% females

  77. How far should a garbage pit be located from a dining facility?

    78. Your answer:
    No closer than 100 yards
    No closer than 20 yards
    No closer than 30 yards
    No closer than 50 yards

  78. How many garbage pits would be needed for a facility that served 200 soldiers per day?

    79. Your answer:
    1
    3
    4
    2

  79. How is a garbage pit normally closed?

    80. Your answer:
    Cover with dirt after each meal and close daily.
    Close pit at end of bivouac.
    Cover with dirt at end of each day and close when garbage is within one foot of top of pit.
    Cover with dirt after each meal and close when garbage is with one foot of top of pit.

  80. What type of latrine is used during a road march?

    81. Your answer:
    Cat-hole latrine
    Straddle-trench latrine
    Deep-pit latrine
    Pail latrine

  81. How far should a latrine be from a food service facility?

    82. Your answer:
    At least 50 yards
    At least 30 yards
    At least 100 yards
    At least 20 yards

  82. What are the approximate dimensions of a garbage pit?

    83. Your answer:
    4' long x4' wide x4' deep
    3' long x1' wide x3' deep
    2' long x 2' wide x2' deep
    1' long x1' wide x1' deep

  83. Approximately how deep is a cat-hole latrine?

    84. Your answer:
    12 inches
    2 feet
    6 inches
    3 inches

  84. How many straddle-trench latrines would be needed for 100 males?

    85. Your answer:
    2
    1
    3
    4

  85. What are the approximate dimensions of the elliptical hole in the seat used with deep pit latrines?

    86. Your answer:
    9" x 12"
    6" x 12"
    12" x 18"
    6" x 9"

  86. How deep is a deep-pit latrine?

    87. Your answer:
    2 feet 6 inches
    3 feet
    4 feet
    6 feet

  87. What is the WBGT index in degrees Fahrenheit for heat condition/category 1?

    88. Your answer:
    82-87.9
    78-81.9
    88-89.9
    90 and above

  88. What is the work/rest cycle, in minutes, for heat condition 1?

    89. Your answer:
    30/30
    40/20
    Continuous
    50/10

  89. What is the work/rest cycle, in minutes, for heat condition 2 (condition green)?

    90. Your answer:
    40/20
    30/30
    20/40
    50/10

  90. What is the work/rest cycle, in minutes, for heat condition 3 (condition yellow)?

    91. Your answer:
    50/10
    20/40
    30/30
    40/20

  91. During the “rest” portion of the work/rest cycle to be observed under which heat category may soldiers not be required to attend lectures or perform maintenance on their weapons?

    92. Your answer:
    condition yellow
    condition red
    condition black
    none of the above

  92. What is the work/rest cycle, in minutes, for heat condition 5 (condition black)?

    93. Your answer:
    Continuous
    50/10
    20/40
    30/30

  93. A soldier is working in an environment with a WGT temperature of 79 degrees Fahrenheit and is told to go to MOPP level 3. What heat condition/category would the soldier be placed into now?

    94. Your answer:
    4 (red)
    2 (green)
    3 (yellow)
    5 (black)

  94. How many degrees Fahrenheit do you add to the WBGT Index for MOPP gear or body armor?

    95. Your answer:
    10 degrees for either one
    5 degrees for either one
    10 degrees for MOPP gear, 5 degrees for body armor
    Wearing MOPP gear or body armor does not effect the WBGT Index

  95. What water intake is recommended under heat condition 3 (condition yellow)?

    96. Your answer:
    ¾ - 1 quart per hour
    At least 1/2 quart per hour
    At least 2 quarts per hour
    1/2 – 1 quart per hour

  96. What type of chemical agent vapors does M9 paper detect?

    97. Your answer:
    None
    Blister
    Blood
    Nerve

  97. What is the correct placement of M9 detector paper on a Right-handed soldier?

    98. Your answer:
    M9 detector paper is not worn
    Upper arm and ankle on one side of the body, wrist on other side of body
    Upper arm and upper thigh on one side of the body, elbow on the other side of the body
    Both wrists and ankles

  98. What is the non-NATO marker is used to identify a site contaminated with a chemical agent?

    99. Your answer:
    Yellow marker with "CHEM" written in blue letters
    Blue maker with "CHEM" written in red letters
    Yellow marker with "CHEM" written in blue letters
    Blue marker with "GAS" written in yellow letters

  99. You are about to mark a radiological contaminated area. What information would you include on the marker?

    100. Your answer:
    No information is written on the marker, it is contained in the NBC-1 report
    Date and time you placed marker
    Date and time of detonation (if known) and dose rate
    Only the dose rate

  100. Where should radiological contamination markers be placed?

    101. Your answer:
    Where the dose rate is measured at 10 centigray per hour or less
    Where the dose rate is measured at 1 centigray per hour or less.
    Where the dose rate is measured at 1 centigray per hour or more
    Where the dose rate is measured at 10 centigray per hour or more

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