EMT-B Quiz

The entire back of an adult patient's right arm her entire chest have been burned. What percentage of surface burn would you report?

Your answer:
18%
36%
13.5%
27%

A moderate burn involves

Your answer:
partial- and full-thickness burns of the face and hands
superficial burns covering more than 50% of the body surface
full-thickness burns over less than 2% of the body surface
superficial burns covering less than 20% of the body surface

Partial-thickness burns cause

Your answer:
slight swelling
nerve damage
scarring
swelling and blistering

A patient is suffering from chemical burns to the skin caused by dry lime. Your first step should be to

Your answer:
remove the lime with alcohol
brush away the lime
remove the lime with phenol
wash the area with running water

Acid burns to the eyes should be flooded with water for at least _____ minutes.

Your answer:
10
5
20
1

A method for estimating the extend of a burn is the

Your answer:
rule of percentages
rule of degrees
burn assessment rule
rule of nines

The nubmer-one priority for all EMS personnel at a collision scene is

Your answer:
keeping the bystanders clear of the scene
assuring the patient's safety first
contacting medical control for instructions
wearing the appropriate protective clothing

When arriving at the scene of a collision, the first thing an EMT-B should do is

Your answer:
evaluate hazards and calculate the need for additional support
check to see if the vehicles involved have deployed air bags
determine the extend of patient entrapment and the means of extrication
determine whether patients are low or high priority

The EMT-B is responsible for protecting patient from all of the following EXCEPT

Your answer:
the environment
injuries sustained by not wearing a seatbelt
broken glass from the wrecked car
sharp metal in the wrecked car

At the scene of an auto collision, the EMT-B should try to do all of the following EXCEPT

Your answer:
describe the extrication procedures to bystanders
keep the patient's safety in mind
inform the patient of the unique aspects of the extrication
keep his/her own personal safety in mind

A vehicle involved in a collision that is determined to be a simple access will

Your answer:
not require towing
require only basic air-powered tools
not require stopping traffic
not require equipment to get to the patient

Which of the following is UNTRUE of applying a short spine board?

Your answer:
Apply a single chin strap prior to moving the patient
Secure the torso first, and then the head
Reassess the patient after the device is placed.
Pad between the patient's head and the spine board

To assist with patient access, the EMT-B should initially do each of the following EXCEPT

Your answer:
pull the patient out the side windows
ask the patient to unlock the doors
try opeing each car door
roll down windows

What dictates the specific technique used for spinal immobilization of a patient at a collision extrication?

Your answer:
requirements for speed of removal
how may rescuers are available for removal
whether an air bag was deployed
none of the above

Which step in the phases of the rescue process is out of order: 1) sizing up the situation, 2) gaiing the access, 3) disentangling the patient, 4) stabilizing the vehicle?

Your answer:
1
2
3
4

Considerations for size-up of a collision include all of the following EXCEPT

Your answer:
number of patients involved
number of ambulances in the region
potential hazards
need for additional EMS units

To minimize injuries at a collision, the EMT-B should

Your answer:
deactiviate the safety guards on tools
wear highly visible clothing
use a limited number of tools
wait until the police arrive on the scene

The vehicle's catalytic converter can be a source of ignition at a collision because it

Your answer:
is often over 1200 degrees F
pumps high pressure fumes
often emits sparks
may leak gasoline

The three-step process of disentanglement describes in the text includes all of the following EXCEPT

Your answer:
create exitways by displacing doors and roof posts
disentangle occupants by displacing front end
open the trunk and cut the battery cable
gain access by disposing of the roof

Which of the following is TRUE about dealing with a collision vehicle's electrical system?

Your answer:
Disconnecting the ground cable will produce a spark that can ignite battery gases
It should be diabled by cutting a battery cable
Cuting the battery cable can assist in rescue operations
If it must be disrupted, disconnect the ground cable from the battery

When positioning flares, use a formula that includes the stopping distance for the posted speed plus the

Your answer:
angle of the road
radius of the danger zone
reaction distance
margin of safety

Once the vehicle has been stabilized, the SECOND part of an extrication procedure for patient rescue is to

Your answer:
dispose of the vehicle's roof
displace the front end of the vehicle
dispace doors and roof posts
none of the above

The Emergency Medical Dispatcher has told you the exact location of a collision, how many and what kinds of vehicles are involved, and any known hazards. What other information would you like the EMD to provide concerning the collision?

Your answer:
the direction designator
how many persons are injured
how to contact the person who reported the collision
the nature of the emergency

Which of the following is an UNNECESSARY question for the Emergency Medical Dispatcher to ask when receiving a call for help?

Your answer:
What's the patient's sex?
What's the patient's name?
How old is the patient?
Is the patient conscious?

When operating a siren, be aware that

Your answer:
it's necessary to pull up close to vehicles and sound the siren
the siren must be used continuously when carrying injured patients
the continuous sound of a siren cound worsen a patient's condition
all motorist will hear and honor your signal

All of the following are factors that affect an ambulance's response to a secene EXCEPT

Your answer:
detours
day of the week
danger zones
time of the day

If a patient develops cardiac arrest during transport, have the operator of the ambulance

Your answer:
adjust the ambulance's speed
contact the hospital emergency department
assist you with CPR
stop the ambulance

When transferring a non-emergency patient to the emergency department personnel, you should

Your answer:
off-load, wheel to the designated area, and leave the patient
off-load, wheel to the designated area, and stay with the patient
wait for emergency staff to call for the patient
check to see what is to be done with the patient

The last step when transferring a patient is to

Your answer:
transfer patient information
wait to help the emergency department staff
transfer the patient's valuables
obtain your release

At the hospital, as soon as you are free from patient care activities, you should

Your answer:
check on patient status with the emergency department
quickly clean the vehicle's patient compartment
prepare the prehospital care report
notify dispatch you are back in service

Which of the following is NOT a biohazard?

Your answer:
suction catheters
unopened gauze bandages
contaminated dressings
blood-soaked linen

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of an EMS/hospital equipment exchange program?

Your answer:
Delay of the crew at the hospital is prevented
Patients are not subjected to injury-aggravating movement
Ambulances can return to quarters fully equipped
Completeness and operability of equipment is ensured.

Vigorus cleaning of the ambulance while parked at the hopsital is prevented or restricted by all of the following limitations EXCEPT

Your answer:
equipment
space
law
time

While en route to your quarters,

Your answer:
disinfect and decontaminate the ambulance
clean and sanitize the patient compartment
clean any equipment that touched the patient
radio dispatch that you are returning

When you return to quarters, do all of the following EXCEPT

Your answer:
clean the interior of the ambulance
replenish oxygen cylinders
prepare for service
air the ambulance if necessary

A posion-control kit should include of the followng EXCEPT

Your answer:
antivenin solution
paper cups
activiated charcoal
drinking water

Which of he following is NOT a piece of equipment in the first-in kit?

Your answer:
stethoscope
penlight
fixed suction system
rigid cervical collar

The first thing to inspect on the ambulance when the engine is off is the

Your answer:
fuel level
siren
battery
body fo the vehicle

Rescue tools should always be examined for

Your answer:
water pressure
dead batteries
electrolyte levels
rust and dirt

Along with physical and mental fitness, ambulance operators should be able to

Your answer:
justify feelings of superiority
perform under stress
always be up for a run
move other vehicles off the roadway

When driving an ambulance, you should realize that there are no state laws that grant the

Your answer:
absolute right of way
privilege of special parking at the scene
use of controlled additional speed
passage through traffic signals

The headlights of an ambulance should be turned on

Your answer:
whenever the vehicle is on the road
during the day, but only when raining
and off in a blinking fashion
only at night

When a car collides with a utility pole, the EMT-B should assume all of the following EXCEPT

Your answer:
there is not electrical hazard
that severed conductors may be energizing every wire
obviously dead wires could be energized at any moment
wires may be charged at the highest voltage present

The easiest way to break tempered window glass is with a

Your answer:
Glas Master window saw
sledge hammer
blunt object
sping-loaded center punch

Which of the following signs is NOT an indication that a child has an airway disease?

Your answer:
lack of airway passage swelling
wheezing
breathing effort on exhalation
rapid breathing

The soft spot on top of an infant's head is called a

Your answer:
suture
fontanelle
contusion
depression site

Small children are referred to as ______ breathers.

Your answer:
abdominal
head
chest
neck

A child's compensating mechanisms for shock fails at approximately ______ blood loss.

Your answer:
20%
10%
30%
40%

In cases of sudden infant death syndrome, the EMT-B should

Your answer:
declare the patient dead
provide resuscitation and transport to the hospital
hold off on care and simply transport the body
hunt of evidence of child abuse

Which injuries might lead you to consider child abuse?

Your answer:
multiple skinned knees
a burn from chewing an electric cord
injuries to the center of the back and upper arms
both ankles are sprained

A child who is hypoxic will

Your answer:
complain of neck pain
have a slowed heart rate
have an increased heart rate
forget to breathe

Artifical ventilations for an infant or child under 8 years of age should be provided at a rate of ____ per minute.

Your answer:
8
16
20
12

If you suspect respiratory distress in a conscious toddler, you should NOT

Your answer:
open the airway
administer high-concentration of oxygen
allow the child to sit up
insert anything into the patient's mouth

How do children usually get lead poisoning?

Your answer:
eating fish
eating pencils
eating paint chips
breathing asbestos

Common causes of shock in children include, infections, trauma, blood loss, and

Your answer:
meningitis
dehydration
lack of insulin
heart failure

A sunken fontanelle may indicate

Your answer:
dehydration
fever
hypertension
elevated intracranial pressure

Flowing oxygen over the face of a small child so it will be inhaled is referred to as the ________ technique.

Your answer:
flow-by
blow-by
rebreather
supplemental

A complication of a rapidly rising temperature in a child is often

Your answer:
vomiting
ringing in the ears
hyperactivity
a seizure

A group of viral illnesses that results in inflammation of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi is called

Your answer:
asthma
croup
anaphylaxis
meningitis

A child ages three to six is referred to as

Your answer:
preschooler
toddler
trouble
preadolescent

The strong, white, fibrous material overing the bones is called the

Your answer:
periosteum
perineum
shell
marrow

The coming apart of a joint is referred to as a

Your answer:
fracture
strain
dislocation
sprain

Over-stretching or over-exertion of a muscle is called a

Your answer:
sprain
strain
dislocation
fracture

Proper splinting of a closed fracture is

Your answer:
done with an air splint
done with the PASG
designed to prevent closed injuries from becoming open ones
completed in the hospital by a surgeon

Any force strong enough to fracture the pelvis also can cause injury to the

Your answer:
spine
calvicle
tibia
rib cage

Examples of a bipolar traction splint include all of the following EXCEPT

Your answer:
half-ring
Sager
Hare
Fernotrac

The indications for a traction splint are painful, swollen, deformed mid-thigh with

Your answer:
either ankle or knee involvement
an open fracture of the lower leg
no joint or lower leg injury
extensive blood loss and shock

The level of training established by OSHA for those who actually plug, patch, or stop the release of a hazardous material is called

Your answer:
Paramedic
First Responder Awareness
First Responder Operations
Hazardous Materials Technician

At a hazardous materials accident site, the "safe zone" should be located

Your answer:
downwind/same .eve.
downwind/downhill
upwind/downhill
upwind/same level

A resource that must be maintained at the work site by the employer and that must be available to all employees working with hazardous materials is called

Your answer:
NFPA 704
North American Emergency Response Guidebook
shipping manifest
Material Safety Data Sheet

The responsibilities of EMS personnel at a hazmat incident include caring for the injured and

Your answer:
notifying medical direction about the incident
decontaminating those exiting the hot zone
monitoring and rehabilitating the hazmat team members
staging personnel and equipment in the warm zone

When a patient is categorized as Priority 1 at a MCI, this means the patient

Your answer:
has treatable life-threatening illness or injuries
has minor musculoskeletal or soft-tissue injuries
is dead or fatally injuried
is serious, but does not have life-threatening injuries or illness

The MCI officer responsible for communicating with each treatment sector to determine the number and priority of the patients in that sector is called the _______ officer.

Your answer:
staging
triage
treatment
transportation

When identifying a patients treatment priority at an MCI, a Priority 2 patient would be color-coded as

Your answer:
green
black
yellow
red

At an MCI, patients who are assessed to have minor injuries should be categorized as Priority ____.

Your answer:
2
1
3
4