EMT QUIZ 11

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  1. The first piece of legistration that forced the Department of Transportation to adopt standards for prehospital emergency care was the:
  2. Your answer:
    National EMS Systems Act
    National EMT Act
    National Highway Safety Act
    U. S. Trauma Act


  3. Which of the following is NOT a nationally recognized level of EMS training?
  4. Your answer:
    EMT-Intermediate
    EMT-Basic
    EMT-Critical Care
    First Responder


  5. Specialty centers are important because:
  6. Your answer:
    receiving facilities have varying capabilities
    not every patient can afford every hospital
    not all patients can be transported to the appropriate facility
    it is impossible to match patient needs with hospital resources


  7. Which of the following is a component of a modern 911 or enhanced 911 system?
  8. Your answer:
    the caller's phone number identification
    automatic caller location
    instant routing of the call
    all of the above


  9. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the National Registry?
  10. Your answer:
    establishing national standards
    assisting in evaluating training programs
    licensing and certifying EMTs in each state
    administering testing materials


  11. Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for medical care provided by the EMT in the field?
  12. Your answer:
    state EMS authority
    agency CEO
    medical director
    local EMS director


  13. Which of the following is an example of direct medical control?
  14. Your answer:
    developing protocols and standing orders
    designing Continuing Quality Improvement activities
    conducting chart reviews
    consulting with the physician on radio during an emergency call


  15. Field interventions that are completed before contacting the medical control physician are known as:
  16. Your answer:
    intervener physician protocols
    standing orders
    designated authority
    indirect medical control orders


  17. Which of the following statements is true regarding stress?
  18. Your answer:
    It may be caused by a single event
    It may be the cumulative result of several events
    It exists to some degree in everyone
    all of the above


  19. A condition resulting from chronic job stress, characterized by irritability, fatigue, and insomnia is called:
  20. Your answer:
    burnout
    clinical depression
    parhogenic depression
    social debriefing


  21. Which of the following is a way to manage stress?
  22. Your answer:
    solicit support from coworkers
    get adequate rest and sleep
    get involved in things outside of EMS
    all of the above


  23. Which of the following is NOT a definition of a critical incident stress debriefing?
  24. Your answer:
    It reduces the impact of a critical event
    It provides psychotherapy and psychological treatment
    It accelerates the normal recovery of rescuers
    It allows emergency personnel to discuss their feelings


  25. A critical incident debriefing session should take place within_____ following the incident.
  26. Your answer:
    1 to 2 weeks
    3 to 5 days
    1 to 3 days
    1 to 3 hours


  27. The grief stage characterized by refusing to accept the possibility that something bad has or is about to happen is:
  28. Your answer:
    bargaining
    indecisiveness
    denial
    depression


  29. When dealing with patients and family members during the anger stage:
  30. Your answer:
    allow them to vent their feelings
    understand their anger may be directed at you
    don't take their remarks personally
    all of the above


  31. During the acceptance stage the dying patient:
  32. Your answer:
    is often devoid of feelings
    is preparing to face death
    is without fear and despair
    all of the above


  33. Microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses that cause disease are known as:
  34. Your answer:
    antibodies
    antigens
    fungi
    pathogens


  35. Examples of bloodborne disease include all the the following EXCEPT:
  36. Your answer:
    hepatitis A
    hepatitis B
    AIDS
    syphilis


  37. Examples of airborne disease include all of the following EXCEPT:
  38. Your answer:
    measles
    hepatitis A
    meningitis
    tuberculosis


  39. The EMT-B should be concerned about infetion-control procedures:
  40. Your answer:
    before the incident
    during the incident
    after the incident
    all of the above


  41. Appropriate universal precautions include:
  42. Your answer:
    using appropriate eye protection
    wearing gloves during all patient contact
    isolating all body fluids
    all of the the above


  43. Meningitis is spread primarily by which of the following methods?
  44. Your answer:
    a needle stick
    eating contaminated food
    a sneeze or cough
    blood transfusion


  45. A yearly PPD test is necessary to monitor the presence of which disease?
  46. Your answer:
    hepatitis B
    meningitis
    AIDS
    tuberculosis


  47. The type of hepatitis transmitted from restaurant workers who fail to wash their hands before handling food is:
  48. Your answer:
    b
    c
    d
    a


  49. Which of the following statements is true regarding AIDS?
  50. Your answer:
    It is transmitted via most body fluids
    EMTs are included in the high-risk group for contracting this disease
    It is caused by the HIV virus
    All of the above


  51. Expressed consent means:
  52. Your answer:
    the adult patient is mentally competent
    the patient understands the treatment and the risks
    the patient agrees to the treatment
    all of the above


  53. Which of the following would NOT fall under the concept of implied consent?
  54. Your answer:
    a 5-year in anaphylactic shock with no parent present
    a mentally retarded person having a severe asthma attack
    a diabetic who awakens following oral glucose therapy and refuses transport
    an unconscious diabetic in insulin shock


  55. In order for a patient to refuse care, he or she must:
  56. Your answer:
    be mentally competent
    be fully informed and understand the risks
    sign a release form
    all of the above


  57. In which of the following situations should the EMT NOT begin resuscitation?
  58. Your answer:
    A valid DNR from is presented
    The patient is a terminal cancer patient
    The patient refused care before he went unconscious
    The family requests no "heroic efforts"


  59. Negligence is defined as:
  60. Your answer:
    lawsuits involving no physical harm
    deviating from the standard of care
    failing to prove proximate cause
    all of the above


  61. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component of a successful negligence suit?
  62. Your answer:
    proximate cause
    duty to act
    unlawful consent
    breach of duty


  63. In which of the following cases does the EMT ALWAYS have a duty to act?
  64. Your answer:
    on duty at the station dispatched to a call
    driving by an accident on the way home from work
    off duty at home and a call comes in
    driving the ambulance outside of your district


  65. Immediately following placing their patient onto the hospital stretcher, the dispatcher alerts the EMTB crew to hurry as another call is waiting. No nurse is available to formally transfer their patient and give report so they leave the patient in the room and respond to the next emergency. In the meantime, the patient somehow falls out of the stretcher and fractures her hip on the floor: Who is responsible?
  66. Your answer:
    the nurse manager
    the ED physician
    the EMT crew
    none of the above


  67. Laws that protect health-care workers from liability in the event they stop and render roadside care are known as:
  68. Your answer:
    Negligence laws
    Good Samaritan laws
    Bystander laws
    Delegation of Authority laws


  69. In which of the following cases should an EMT NOT release patient information?
  70. Your answer:
    The quality improvement committee requests it
    The insurance company requires it
    The patient signs a written release
    An attorney requests information over the phone


  71. Which of the following does NOT describe normal anatomical position?
  72. Your answer:
    standing erect
    facing forward
    palms downward
    arms at the sides


  73. A patient who is found lying on his back is said to be:
  74. Your answer:
    in the Fowler's position
    prone
    supine
    directly recumbent


  75. Your patient has a bruise on the lateral surface of his right thigh. The bruise is found:
  76. Your answer:
    on the inside of his leg
    on the back of his leg
    on the outside of his leg
    none of the above


  77. The mid-axillary line extends from the:
  78. Your answer:
    larynx to the navel
    armpit to the ankle
    shoulders to the palms
    nipples to the pelvis


  79. The terms that refer to the front of the body are:
  80. Your answer:
    anterior/dorsal
    posterior/dorsal
    posterior/ventral
    anterior/ventral


  81. Which of the following organs is inferior to the heart?
  82. Your answer:
    right humerus
    left lung
    stomach
    larynx


  83. The elbow is comprised of the:
  84. Your answer:
    distal humerus and the proximal radius/ulna
    distal humerus and the distal radius/ulna
    proximal humerus and the proximal radius/ulna
    proximal humerus and the distal radius/ulna


  85. The function of the musculoskeletal system is to:
  86. Your answer:
    give the body shape
    protect vital internal organs
    provide for body movement
    all of the above


  87. The cheekbones are also known as:
  88. Your answer:
    occipital bones
    zygomatic bones
    maxilla
    manible


  89. The spinal column is made up of ______ vertebrea.
  90. Your answer:
    28
    30
    36
    33


  91. Which of the following is NOT a part of the sternum?
  92. Your answer:
    xiphoid process
    zygoma
    manubrium
    body


  93. The superior pelvic bone that can be felt near the waist is the:
  94. Your answer:
    ilium
    ischium
    pubis
    acetabulum


  95. The head of the femur fits into the:
  96. Your answer:
    acetabulum
    zygomatic arch
    femoral notch
    patellar joint


  97. The "shinbone" is know as the:
  98. Your answer:
    tibia
    femur
    calcaneus
    fibula


  99. The lateral malleolus is another name for the:
  100. Your answer:
    inner knee
    outer ankle
    inner ankle
    outer knee



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