Emergency Medical Technician Quiz 3

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  1. Defibrillation of an infant requires:
  2. Your answer:
    2-4 joules/kg
    5 joules/kg
    1 joule/kg
    200 joules


  3. Morphine is a schedule ____ narcotic medication.
  4. Your answer:
    IV
    III
    I
    II


  5. A farmer who had been spraying his crops calls EMS because he has a sudden onset of dyspnea. On arrival you find him sitting in a chair complaining of nausea, substernal tightness, and abdominal cramps. He is sweating and in some respiratory distress. After placing him on high-flow O2 and starting an IV of NSS you would next give:
  6. Your answer:
    atropine 1 mg
    atropine 5 mg IV push
    epinephrine 0.3-0.5 sub-q
    atropine 2 mg IM followed by 1 mg IV push


  7. What do you hyperventilate a patient with a head injury?
  8. Your answer:
    to lower pCO2 below 40 torr
    to lower pCO2 below 100 torr
    to raise pCO2 above 40 mmHg
    none of the above


  9. An infant with one leg burned on both sides has what percent of body burned?
  10. Your answer:
    12%
    13.5%
    18%
    9%


  11. If you put 400mg of dopamine in 500 mls of D5W, how much dopamine is there per ml?
  12. Your answer:
    800 mcg
    1.25 mg
    1250 mcg
    1600 mcg


  13. What is described as the movement of a substance across the cell membrane against the osmotic gradient using energy?
  14. Your answer:
    facilitated transport
    osmosis
    active transport
    diffusion


  15. Procainamide administed too rapidly may cause:
  16. Your answer:
    narrowing of the QRS complex
    V-tach
    hypertension
    hypotension


  17. Theophylline and Theo-dur are both:
  18. Your answer:
    bronchodilators
    sympathomimetics
    cardiac glycocides
    cholinergic


  19. Which of the following is an emetic?
  20. Your answer:
    ipecac liquid
    atropine
    ipecac syrup
    activated charcoal


  21. 100 mls of 2% lidocaine contains how much lidocaine?
  22. Your answer:
    2000mcg
    2000 mg
    20 gm
    200 mg


  23. A 30 year old female has just taken 100 tablets of Tylenol. What should you administer?
  24. Your answer:
    30 mls ipecac syrup
    50 gms activated charcoal
    30 mls ipecac water
    60 mls ipecac syrup


  25. A widened QRS complex is a sign of:
  26. Your answer:
    atropine overdose
    conduction defect of the ventricles
    slowed impulses through the atria
    wandering pacemaker


  27. You have put restraints on a patient who shows signs of violence. How do you explain this to him?
  28. Your answer:
    the law says we must restain all OBS patients
    We put these on everyone
    These are to keep you from hurting yourself and others
    We like doing this!


  29. To secure the airway in a trauma patient, you should:
  30. Your answer:
    place an ET tube putting the head in a sniffing position
    use only an oropharyngeal airway
    place an ET tube while your partner maintains in-line immobilization
    place an EOA and hyperextend the neck


  31. What is usually true in GI bleeding?
  32. Your answer:
    never bright red in color
    peptic ulcer is most common cause
    duodenal ulcer is most common cause
    never dark red in color


  33. A 20 year old male fractured his leg one week ago. He has taken aspirin for pain. He gets up and becomes short of breath. He probably suffered a(n)
  34. Your answer:
    pulmonary embolism
    thrombosis
    angina attack
    acute MI


  35. A 27 year old male involved in a MVA is complaining of chest pain. You would treat this patient as having a(n):
  36. Your answer:
    pulmonary embolism
    MI
    thrombosis
    angina attack


  37. You suspect a patient is having an MI. You base this on:
  38. Your answer:
    vital signs
    appearance
    Hx of the acute illness
    opinion of base hospital physician


  39. Tension pneumothorax causes:
  40. Your answer:
    cardiac tamponade effect
    thrombosis
    lact of blood return to the atria
    pulmonary embolism


  41. In tension pneumothorax the patient has:
  42. Your answer:
    over inflation of the lung
    tracheal deviation toward affected side
    tracheal deviation away from affected side
    ruptured spleen


  43. Ischemia is defined as:
  44. Your answer:
    lack of oxygen to the cells
    deficient blood supply
    lack of CO2 to the cells
    deficient iron supply


  45. You started an IV in the extgernal jugular. As you attach the tubing you note blood pulse back up into the tubing. You will:
  46. Your answer:
    D/C the IV, withdraw the catheter and apply pressure for 5 minutes
    slow the IV to KVO rate
    attach a blood filter
    tape the IV in place, clamp the tubing and start another


  47. Principles of restraining patients include all of the following EXCEPT:
  48. Your answer:
    restrain all extremities
    have adequate numbers of people
    restrain as a last resort
    free the restraints after the patient displays rational behavior


  49. You put 1 gm of lidocaine in 250 mls of D%W. You are told to administer 2mg/min. How many gtts/min is this?
  50. Your answer:
    15 gtts
    30 gtts
    45 gtts
    60 gtts


  51. By what process does a solute move through a semi-permiable membrane?
  52. Your answer:
    osmosis
    diffusion
    magic
    activity


  53. What do you call acoarse rub or bark on expiration?
  54. Your answer:
    croup
    rales
    rhonchi
    wheezes


  55. The effective action of acetylcholine is:
  56. Your answer:
    parasympathetic
    antagonistic
    adrenegic
    sympathetic


  57. A drug with beta effects will cause:
  58. Your answer:
    vasoconstriction
    bronchoconstriction
    increased heart rate
    none of the above


  59. Which area reflects the central venous pressure?
  60. Your answer:
    radial artery
    pulmonary artery
    right atrium
    aorta


  61. Hypovolemic shock produces:
  62. Your answer:
    increased afterload
    increased CVP
    decreased preload
    increased preload


  63. How do you know your treatment for shock is effective?
  64. Your answer:
    return to spontaneous ventilation
    2 liters of fluid has been given
    cyanosis is gone
    blood pressure rises


  65. What would you not use in neonatal resuscitation?
  66. Your answer:
    high flow O2 by demand valve
    endotracheal intubation
    epinephrine
    CPR


  67. Initial therapy for a child with a high fever, drooling, and anxiety is:
  68. Your answer:
    humidified O2 by mask
    administer racemic epinephrine
    direct laryngoscopy
    prepare for intubation


  69. You are treating a 35 year old male who was the driver in a MVA. He is complaining of chest pain and shows steering wheel imprints on the chest. Lung sounds are equal bilaterally. Patient is hypertensive but has bilateral decreased fermoral pulses. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
  70. Your answer:
    tension pneumothorax
    dissected aorta
    fractured sternum
    rib fractures


  71. A person who acts in a less developed form of behavior is demonstrating:
  72. Your answer:
    paranoia
    regression
    Dan Laws
    agoraphobia


  73. You rspond to find an unconscious 69 year old male on the bathroom floor. During your exam the patient awakens and tells you he was attempting to move his bowels. His most likely difficulty is:
  74. Your answer:
    postural syncope
    vasovagal response
    vertigo
    cardiac syncope


  75. You have an unconscious patient who was complaining of chest pain prior to collapse. BP is 88.45, pulse 46, and respirations 12. The patient is likely suffering from:
  76. Your answer:
    CVA
    AMI
    anaphylaxsis
    cardiogenic shock


  77. Which is a common reason in having to treat a diabetic:
  78. Your answer:
    hidrosis
    hirsutism
    medication noncompliance
    lack of knowledge about insulin


  79. The difficulty in tranmission of radio waves is related to the fact that radio waves:
  80. Your answer:
    are absorbed by the ground
    are reflected by metal objects
    are scattered by irregular metal objects
    go through dense foliage


  81. Which of the following is the best definition to "phobia":
  82. Your answer:
    great fear of wide open spaces
    tortured as a child
    a normal fear
    an unrealistic fear


  83. You rspond to a 27 year old male complaining of sudden onset of stabbing chest pain on inspiration. Vital signs are stable and the lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
  84. Your answer:
    hemothorax
    pleurisy
    pneumonia
    spontaneous pneumothorax


  85. The amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute is referred to as:
  86. Your answer:
    cardiac output
    PVR
    stroke volume
    afterload


  87. Acetylcholine is usually associated with:
  88. Your answer:
    parasympathetic system
    alpha sympathetic system
    beta synmpathetic system
    adrenegic system


  89. You respond to an elderly female found in the snow. The outside temperature is -2 degrees Farenheight. The vital signs are depressed. Important to know in treatment is:
  90. Your answer:
    apply hot packs in axilla and wrap in blankets
    CPR may be ineffective until the patient is rewarmed
    rewarm the patient quickly
    support the patients BP


  91. A patient is unconscious and you suspect a neck injury. Which assessment is NOT done?
  92. Your answer:
    observe respiratory effort
    check for "dools eyes" phenomenon
    observe trachea for mid-line position
    palpate the neck for deformities


  93. An abnormal, high pitched, musical inspiratory sound caused by obstruction in the trachea or larynx is called:
  94. Your answer:
    rales
    rhonchi
    wheezing
    stridor


  95. The best definition of extrication from a vehicle?
  96. Your answer:
    removification
    dismemberment
    disentaglement
    removal


  97. How many milligrams of lidocaine are contained in 1 ml of a 2% solution?
  98. Your answer:
    2 mg
    20 gm
    20 mg
    200 mg


  99. A patient who is suicidal usually:
  100. Your answer:
    doesn't really mean it
    is also homicidal
    does not transmit their intentions
    tends to feel isolated



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