Emergency Medical Technician Test 200

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  1. A fracture producing deformity of a limb would be considered:

    2. Your answer:
    nondisplaced
    complicated
    displaced
    rotated

  2. The most reliable sign of an underlying fracture is:

    3. Your answer:
    a bruise
    ecchymosis
    a contusion
    point tenderness

  3. A wire ladder splint is an example of a:

    4. Your answer:
    rigid splint
    lateral splint
    trauma splint
    soft splint

  4. A grating sound or sensation noted when broken ends of bones rub together is known as:

    5. Your answer:
    deformity
    costal grating
    crepitus
    epiphyses

  5. A sling and swathe is an example of a:

    6. Your answer:
    mobile splint
    compound splint
    rigid splint
    soft splint

  6. Signs of an underlying fracture may include:

    7. Your answer:
    deformity
    swelling and dislocation
    lose of use
    all of the above

  7. A splint that is used on a femur fracture is the:

    8. Your answer:
    full leg air splint
    wire ladder splint
    colles splint
    hare splint

  8. A colles fracture is a fracture of the:

    9. Your answer:
    distal tibia
    distal radius
    proximal radius
    proximal fibula

  9. Hip fractures are often accompanied by:

    10. Your answer:
    associated ankle fractures
    knee dislocations
    an outward rotation of the foot
    lengthening of the injured leg

  10. A frequent complication accompanying a posterior dislocation of the hip is:

    11. Your answer:
    an outward rotation of the thigh
    loss of all distal pulses
    sciatic nerve injury
    extension of the limb

  11. A strain involves:

    12. Your answer:
    tendons
    muscles
    ligaments
    all of the above

  12. The joint most commonly dislocated is the:

    13. Your answer:
    knee
    shoulder
    elbow
    ankle

  13. The most common location for strains is the:

    14. Your answer:
    knee
    shoulder
    back
    ankle

  14. A femur fracture may be accompained by blood loss of up to:

    15. Your answer:
    100cc
    250cc
    3000cc
    1000cc

  15. Paralysis of the diaphragm may result from spinal injuries at the level of:

    16. Your answer:
    lumbar vertebrae 1-3
    cervical vertebrae 3-5
    cervical vertebrae 6-7
    thoracic vertebrae 2-5

  16. Clues to congestive heart failure include:

    17. Your answer:
    bradycardia and anxiety
    embolism
    swelling and dyspnea
    pain and discomfort

  17. Signs and symptoms of asthma typically include:

    18. Your answer:
    aphasia
    decreased pulse rate
    chest pain
    wheezing sounds

  18. Which of the following is a true emergency?

    19. Your answer:
    angina pectoris
    spontaneous pneumothorax
    tension pneumothorax
    hyperventilation

  19. The skin of a hypoglycemic patient is often:

    20. Your answer:
    cold and clammy
    cyanotic
    warn and dry
    red

  20. The pancreas produces a hormone called:

    21. Your answer:
    glucose
    progesterone
    insulin
    pancreatitis

  21. Grand mal seizures have three distinct phases - tonic, clonic, and:

    22. Your answer:
    partial
    generalized
    postictal
    psychomotor

  22. When a patient has two or more convulsive seizures without regaining consciousness, it is known as:

    23. Your answer:
    status epilepticus
    grand mal seizures
    jacksonian seizures
    petit mal seizures

  23. Prolonged seizure activity may cause:

    24. Your answer:
    hyperglycemia
    diabetes mellitus
    elipespy
    hypoxia

  24. A fetus grows in the mother's

    25. Your answer:
    placenta
    cervix
    vagina
    uterus

  25. If after cutting the umbilical cord fetal bleeding continues, you should:

    26. Your answer:
    transport immediately
    reclamp the cord
    apply another tie or clamp
    untie the cord

  26. Profuse bleeding can occur from wounds of the face and scalp because the area is very:

    27. Your answer:
    mascular
    compact
    spongy
    vascular

  27. Which of the following is recommended to control bleeding from the socket of a dislodged tooth?

    28. Your answer:
    gauze
    cotton packets
    gloved finger
    tissues

  28. The EMT should suspect brain damage if there is a head injury and the pupils of the eyes are:

    29. Your answer:
    constricted
    pale orange
    unequal
    dilated

  29. Which of the following articulates to the humerus?

    30. Your answer:
    spine
    mandible
    ulna
    sternum

  30. Which of the following muscle types move bones?

    31. Your answer:
    smooth
    voluntary
    involuntary
    unstriated

  31. The amount of time it takes for blood to clot to form is?

    32. Your answer:
    6-7 minutes
    15-17 minutes
    23-25 minutes
    2-3 minutes

  32. A dressing should do all of the following EXCEPT:

    33. Your answer:
    help control bleeding
    hold a bandage in place
    protect the wound from further injury
    prevent further contamination

  33. Tarry looking stool is indicative of:

    34. Your answer:
    gastritis
    an abdominal aneurysm
    bleeding in the intestines above the sigmoid colon
    appendicitis

  34. The medication that is carried by many people at high risk of developing anaphylactic shock is:

    35. Your answer:
    insulin
    aspirin
    dilantin
    epinephrine

  35. Neurogenic shock differs from hypovolemic shock in that:

    36. Your answer:
    there is no pallor or rapid pulse
    there is no blood pressure drop
    it is not related to trauma
    it cannot be corrected with the MAST garment

  36. Respiratory shock is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

    37. Your answer:
    chest trauma
    spinal injury
    airway obstruction
    severe blood loss

  37. Uncontrolled diabetes may lead to:

    38. Your answer:
    psychogenic shock
    anaphylactic shock
    neurogenic shock
    metabolic shock

  38. When body cells receive less oxygen than they need, they are said to be:

    39. Your answer:
    hypoxic
    hyperoxic
    hyperbaric
    anabolic

  39. Bright red frothy blood from the mouth indicates:

    40. Your answer:
    punctured pleura
    frail chest
    fractured ribs
    punctured lung

  40. Which of the following groups contain only solid abdominal organs?

    41. Your answer:
    stomach, spleen, gallbladder, pancreas
    gallbladder, pancreas, liver, small intestine
    spleen, pancreas, liver, kidney
    urinary bladder, gallbladder, stomach, uterus

  41. Transport is required for all hernia patients because:

    42. Your answer:
    a "rupture" could occur
    vomitus may be aspirated
    shock is always a possibility
    the blood supply to the intestine could be shut off due to constriction

  42. Emergency care for an ingunial hernia includes:

    43. Your answer:
    pushing the hernia back inside the abdominal wall
    placing the patient on his stomach
    applying an ice pack to the hernia site
    all of the above

  43. Since most major chest injury complications are true emergencies, provide:

    44. Your answer:
    immediate transport
    100% oxygen
    assistance with ventilations, if necessary
    all of the above

  44. A substitute for occlusive dressings that should NOT be used in the case of abdominal injuries is:

    45. Your answer:
    an IV bag
    aluminum foil
    plastic wrap
    all of the above

  45. By lowering carbon dioxide levels and raising oxygen levels, "hyperventilating the patient" with a head injury helps:

    46. Your answer:
    stop bleeding
    clear the airway
    reduce brain tissue swelling
    all of the above

  46. The fourteen facial bones are fused into immovable joints, EXCEPT for the:

    47. Your answer:
    malar
    maxillae
    septum
    mandible

  47. When the head of the femur is pulled or pushed from the pelvis socket, the patient experiences a:

    48. Your answer:
    femur fracture
    hip fracture
    hip dislocation
    femur dislocation

  48. The structure within the blood that contains the hemoglobin molecule is the:

    49. Your answer:
    glucose
    erythrocyte
    leukocyte
    isotonic

  49. Which of the following represents the largest percentage of total body water?

    50. Your answer:
    intravascular fluid
    extercellular fluid
    intercellular fluid
    interstitial fluid

  50. The oxygen therapy of choice for a hypoxic pediatric patient who will not tolerate a mask is:

    51. Your answer:
    6 lpm via blow-by
    15 lpm via blow-by
    2 lpm via nasal cannula
    15 lpm via nasal cannula

  51. Following a sudden onset of bizzare activity 35 year-old man becomes unresponsive. His vital signs are: P= 120, R=30, and BP 13-.88. His skin is pale and diaphoretic. A Medic Alert tag says he is diabetic. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patients condition?

    52. Your answer:
    insulin shock
    internal hemorrhage
    cerebrovascular accident
    diabetic coma

  52. A venturi mask with a flow rate of 4 lpm will deliver oxygen at a concentration of 24%. The same mask with a flow rate of 8 lpm will deliver what concentration of oxygen?

    53. Your answer:
    48%
    28%
    40%
    4%

  53. A full portable D cylinder contains:

    54. Your answer:
    500 liters of oxygen
    350 liters of oxygen
    625 liters of oxygen
    200 liters of oxygen

  54. The average adult heart beats how many times per day, approximately?

    55. Your answer:
    100,000
    25,000
    10,000
    500

  55. Demand-valve resuscitators should not be used on patients:

    56. Your answer:
    who are breathing
    with an EOA in place
    without a gag reflex
    <12 years old

  56. A patient presenting with a bulging and cyanotic tongue, juglar venous distention, bloodshot eyes, and generalized upper body cyanosis is classically indicative of:

    57. Your answer:
    simple pneumothorax
    traumatic asphyxia
    tension pneumothorax
    narrowing pulse pressure

  57. Your patient received an isolated blunt injury to the mid-axillary line of her right chest. Position from transport should be:

    58. Your answer:
    left laterally recumbent
    right laterally recumbent
    semi-fowler's position
    supine and secured to a long backboard

  58. The ________ is the bone in the anterior leg.

    59. Your answer:
    femur
    fibula
    patella
    tibia

  59. In layman's terms, the ______________ is called the shoulder blade.

    60. Your answer:
    radius
    scapula
    clavicle
    ulna

  60. When sections of a bone are crushed and fragmented, it is called:

    61. Your answer:
    a transverse fracture
    a comminuted fracture
    an impacted fracture
    an oblique fracture

  61. The pulse that is found on the top of the foot is called the ________ pulse.

    62. Your answer:
    posterior fibial
    medial tibial
    popiteal
    dorsalis pedis

  62. An open soft tissue wound with smooth, linear edges is called:

    63. Your answer:
    a laceration
    a hematoma
    an incision
    an abrasion

  63. Loss of sensation due to destruction of nerve endings is associated with:

    64. Your answer:
    a first-degree burn
    a second-degree burn
    a third-degree burn
    a fourth-degree burn

  64. If the rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the back and buttocks of an adult represents what percentage of body surgace area burned?

    65. Your answer:
    4.5%
    11%
    18%
    1%

  65. An area equivalent to the palmar surface of the patient's hand is approximately

    66. Your answer:
    5 percent of the patient's body surface area
    2 percent of the patient's body surface area
    4.5 percent of the patient's body surface area
    1 percent of the patient's body surface area

  66. If the pediatric rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the anterior leg represents:

    67. Your answer:
    18 percent of the patient's body surface area
    1 percent of the patient's body surface area
    4.5 percent of the patient's body surface area
    7 percent of the patient's body surface area

  67. Systemic complications associated with serious burns include all of the following EXCEPT:

    68. Your answer:
    hypothermia
    plasma protein loss
    hyperthermia
    hypovolemia

  68. The two conditions that aggravate cerebral edema are:

    69. Your answer:
    hypotension and hypoxia
    hypoxia and hypercarbia
    hypotension and hypercarbia
    hypotension and bradycardia

  69. Which of the following is not a component of the primary survey?

    70. Your answer:
    blood pressure
    breathing
    level of consciousness
    airway

  70. Solid organs include all of the following EXCEPT the:

    71. Your answer:
    kidneys
    liver
    spleen
    stomach

  71. The mediatinal shift associated with tension pneumothorax results in:

    72. Your answer:
    worsening of thoracic bleeding
    (a) and (b)
    ventilatory compromise
    cardiovascular compromise

  72. If the endotracheal tube advances too far, it may be positioned in the:

    73. Your answer:
    right mainstem bronchus
    trachea
    esophagus
    left mainstem bronchus

  73. A hear rate of less than 60 per minute is defined as:

    74. Your answer:
    normocardia
    bradycardia
    irregular
    tachycardia

  74. A 200ml fuild challenge is to be infused over 20 minutes. The drop factor is 10 drops/ml. How fast will you run it?

    75. Your answer:
    33 drops/min
    400 drops/min
    100 drops/min
    1 drop/min

  75. The primary concern with facial fractures is:

    76. Your answer:
    airway
    disfigurement
    edema
    bleeding

  76. After blood enters the heart through the right atrium, which valve does the blood flow through next?

    77. Your answer:
    pulmonary valve
    mitral valve
    aortic valve
    tricuspid valve

  77. Once nerve tissue is damaged to a certain extent:

    78. Your answer:
    function is lost, but can be restored
    new cells will grow back with drug treatment
    new cells will replace scar tissue
    function is loss and cannot be restored

  78. The thickest chamber of the heart is the:

    79. Your answer:
    left ventricle
    left atria
    right atria
    right ventricle

  79. A fracture of which bone would cause the damage of the muscle, abductor magnus?

    80. Your answer:
    femur
    ischium
    ulna
    scapula

  80. The common name "wrist bones(8/wrist)", has what anatomical name?

    81. Your answer:
    carpalges
    carpals
    phalanges
    metacarpals

  81. If the blood vessel the "Great Saphenous" is injured, what area of the body would need to be treated?

    82. Your answer:
    upper arm
    abdomen
    upper leg
    neck

  82. All of the following can be found in the various layers of the skin EXCEPT:

    83. Your answer:
    pappilla
    sabaceous gland
    bulb
    lesser omentum

  83. All of the following are parts of the human ear EXCEPT:

    84. Your answer:
    cochlea
    vestibular nerve
    stapes
    none of the above

  84. All of the following are part of the digestive system EXCEPT:

    85. Your answer:
    hepatic flexure
    cystic duct
    pyloric sphincter
    ductus deferens

  85. All of tte following are part of the reproductive system EXCEPT:

    86. Your answer:
    psoas muscle
    labium minus
    uterus
    seminal vesicle

  86. Match the following description with one of the answers below: The systematic gathering of information in order to determine the nature of a patient's illness or injury.

    87. Your answer:
    patient assessment
    secondary survey
    primary survey
    objective examination

  87. The normal range for a child's pulse at age 1-5 years is:

    88. Your answer:
    80-150
    60-90
    60-120
    120-180

  88. When correct CPR is done, what percentage of real heart action is realized?

    89. Your answer:
    25% - 50%
    12% - 25%
    18% - 33%
    25% - 33%

  89. A simple face mask delivers what range of oxygen?

    90. Your answer:
    24% - 40%
    24% - 44%
    35% - 60%
    80% - 95%

  90. In the following group listed below, which are possible causes of altered mental status? 1. diabetic ketoacidosis 2. stroke 3. trauma 4. renal failure 5. hypoglycemia 6. epilepsy

    91. Your answer:
    1,2,3,5,6
    1,2,4,5
    1,3,5,6
    1,3,4,5,6

  91. Place the events of a grand mal seizure chronologically as they are expected to occur. 1. postictal 2. tonic phace 3. aura 4. clonic phase 5. loss of consciousness

    92. Your answer:
    3,5,2,4,1
    3,5,4,2,1
    1,3,2,4,5
    4,5,2,3,1

  92. Failure of the adrenal, thyroid, or pitutary glands may lead to what kind of shock?

    93. Your answer:
    psychogenic
    metabolic
    neurogenic
    cardiogenic

  93. When a bone is fractured, the damage to blood vessels, nerves, and otehr soft tissues may be of greater significance than the fracture.

    94. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  94. Synovial joints are highly movable.

    95. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  95. Poisons that are swallowed are:

    96. Your answer:
    ingested
    absorbed
    injected
    inhaled

  96. Blood loss in an infant is considered serious if it is more than:

    97. Your answer:
    100 ml
    25 ml
    10 ml
    500 ml

  97. If a patient has a bleeding open head wound, the EMT should apply:

    98. Your answer:
    sterile pressure dressing
    loose gauze dressing
    aluminum
    plastic seal

  98. The membrance surrounding the brain and spinal cord is the:

    99. Your answer:
    meninges
    mesentery
    peritoneum
    pleura

  99. In which of the following is there usually no deformity?

    100. Your answer:
    sprain
    dislocation
    angulated fracture
    closed fracture

  100. The formed elements in the blood that carry oxygen are called:

    101. Your answer:
    white blood cells
    red blood cells
    albumins
    platelets

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