Emergency Medical Technician Review Test

Answer the questions below and then click "submit" to send your answers.

  1. The tiny air sacs in the lungs are the:

    2. Your answer:
    alveoli
    papillae
    bronchi
    microvilli

  2. If the vloume of the thoracic cavity increases, the pressure within the cavity:

    3. Your answer:
    at first increases, but then rapidly decreases
    increases
    stays the same
    decreases

  3. The very first step to aid a patient who is not breating is to:

    4. Your answer:
    clear the mouth
    apply positive ventilation
    open the airway
    administer oxygen

  4. Atmospheric air contains:

    5. Your answer:
    16 percent oxygen
    10 percent oxygen
    21 percent oxygen
    25 percent oxygen

  5. When at rest, the average adult will breath:

    6. Your answer:
    1000mL
    4500mL
    500mL
    150mL

  6. When providing initial ventilation to an infant, each breath should take ______ to deliver.

    7. Your answer:
    1 to 1.5 seconds
    4 to 4.5 seconds
    3 to 3.5 seconds
    2 to 2.5 seconds

  7. Before beginning any resuscitative procedures with the laryngectomy patient, the EMT shoujld first check for obstructions in the:

    8. Your answer:
    pharynx
    larynx
    nose and mouth
    trachea

  8. When using the mouth-to-stoma ventilation technique, repeat the ventilations once every:

    9. Your answer:
    5 to 6 seconds
    10 seconds
    2 seconds
    second

  9. For the chest-thrust manuever, the hands are placed:

    10. Your answer:
    at the lower border of the rib cage
    two to threee fingers widths above the xiphoid process
    directly over the xiphoid
    directly over the clavicle

  10. An EMT is trying to corrrect a complete airway obstruction in a conscious adult patient. The first maneuver is to deliver:

    11. Your answer:
    back blows
    abdominal thrusts
    finger sweeps
    ventiliations

  11. The formed elements in the blood that carry oxygen are the:

    12. Your answer:
    red blood cells
    albumins
    white blood cells
    platelets

  12. Which of the following supplies chemical factors needed for blood clot formation?

    13. Your answer:
    fibrocytes
    platelets
    white blood cells
    red blood cells

  13. The transfer of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products to and from the cells takes place in the:

    14. Your answer:
    capillaries
    arteries
    venules
    veins

  14. As an EMT you see bright red blood spurting from a wound, this would be:

    15. Your answer:
    capillary bleeding
    emboli bleeding
    venous bleeding
    arterial bleeding

  15. Which is the best method of controlling external bleeding:

    16. Your answer:
    applying direct pressure
    applying a tourniquet
    applying pressure to a pressure point
    applying a bandage

  16. What pressure point would you use to control bleeding from the lower leg?

    17. Your answer:
    pedal artery
    pelvic wings
    brachial artery
    femoral artery

  17. A tourniquet is best applied when:

    18. Your answer:
    only as a last resort
    when the blood from a wound is spurting
    when the patient is going into shock
    ordered by dispatch

  18. What kind of shock can result from a bee sting?

    19. Your answer:
    cardiogenic shock
    metabolic shock
    septic shock
    anaphylactic shock

  19. What type of shock is caused when the patient has lost a large amouth of blood?

    20. Your answer:
    anaphylactic
    respiratory
    hemorrhagic
    septic

  20. Which of the following is an indication of shock:

    21. Your answer:
    constricted pupils
    dilated pupils
    unequal pupils
    color change of the eyes

  21. A diabetic is found with a full, rapid pulse, cold clammy skin, and complains of hunger pangs. What is his condition?

    22. Your answer:
    hyperglycemia
    anaphylactic shock
    acute abdomen
    hypoglycemia

  22. If a patient presents with "acetone breath" what should you suspect?

    23. Your answer:
    ETOH
    CVA
    hyperglycemia
    hypoglycemia

  23. Care for the conscious pateint in question 21, would be:

    24. Your answer:
    administer sugar
    administer insulin
    let the patient eat a Big Mac
    administer sugar and insulin

  24. "Hardening of the arteries" caused by calcium deposits is called:

    25. Your answer:
    emphysema
    chronic bronchitis
    atherosclerosis
    arteriosclerosis

  25. The sharp pain occuring when a portion of the myocardium is not receiving enough oxygenated blood is:

    26. Your answer:
    dyspnea
    ascites
    angina pectoris
    rales

  26. When a thrombus breaks loose from a diseased artery and moves to occlude the flow of blood in a smaller artery, is is called an:

    27. Your answer:
    arrhythmia
    aneurysm
    embolus
    asytole

  27. The proper dosage of syrup of ipecac to be given to a child under the age of 10 is:

    28. Your answer:
    2 tablespoons
    2 teaspoons
    1 teaspoon
    1 tablespoon

  28. The initial dose of ipecac and water may be repeated if the patient has not vomited in:

    29. Your answer:
    15 to 20 minutes
    10 minutes
    30 minutes
    EMT's may not give additional doses

  29. When a diabetic takes too much insulin, has reduced his sugar intake by not eating, or overexercised or exerted himself, the result is usually:

    30. Your answer:
    diabetic coma
    insulin shock
    insulin coma
    diabetic shock

  30. A commonly abusted narcotic resulting in reduced pulse, lowered skin temperature, and constricting pupils is:

    31. Your answer:
    heroin
    mescaline
    cocaine
    methaqualone

  31. The anatomical region most commonly injured in the read-end impact is the:

    32. Your answer:
    pelvis
    neck
    head
    chest

  32. The pressure wave that accompanies a bullet as it travels through human tissue is called:

    33. Your answer:
    ballistics
    trajectory
    drag
    cavitation

  33. Which of the following would you expect to cause the greatest cavitation?

    34. Your answer:
    a handgun bullet
    a rifle bullet
    an ice pick
    an arrow

  34. Generally, powder burns and tatooing around the entrance wound suggest:

    35. Your answer:
    a handgun
    a gun at close range
    a high-powered rifle
    use of black powder

  35. Ecchymosis over the mastoid bone (characteristic of a basilar skull fracture) is called:

    36. Your answer:
    Battle's sign
    islets of langerhans
    raccoon eyes
    Goblet's sign

  36. The injury that damages the brain on the side opposite of the impact is called:

    37. Your answer:
    contercoup
    subdural hematoma
    subluxation
    reversed effect

  37. An early sign of increasing intracranial pressure is:

    38. Your answer:
    change in the level of consciousness
    irregular respiratory patterns
    bradypnea (slow resrpirations)
    tachypnea (fast respirations)

  38. During a trauma assessment you notice that a patient has no sensation below the lower border of the rib cage. This would suggest spinal pathology between which certebral areas?

    39. Your answer:
    C1 and C3
    C3 and T4
    T4 and T10
    T10 and S1

  39. The most distinctive sign of a frail chest is:

    40. Your answer:
    paradoxical chest wall movement
    severe pain on inspiration
    a widening pulse pressure
    extreme hyperinflation of the chest

  40. The presence of air within the chest cavity, but outside the lung, is called:

    41. Your answer:
    frail chest
    pneumothorax
    hemothorax
    oxygen incompatibility

  41. The problem caused when the sac surrounding the heart fills with fluid is called:

    42. Your answer:
    cerberal vascular accident
    metabolic acidosis
    cardiac rupture
    pericardial tamponade

  42. Which of teh following fluids is most acidic?

    43. Your answer:
    beer, pH 3.0
    coffee, pH 5.0
    blood, pH 7.4
    ammonia, pH 11.0

  43. Solid organs include all of the following EXCEPT the:

    44. Your answer:
    stomach
    spleen
    kidneys
    liver

  44. In abdominal trauma, intravenous access should be established with:

    45. Your answer:
    one 18-gauge catheter
    one, and possibly two, 14 or 16 gauge catheters
    one 20 gauge catheter
    any IV line possible, this is not a high priority

  45. The mediastinal shift associated with tension pneumothorax results in:

    46. Your answer:
    both ventilatory and cardiovascular compromise
    worsening of thoracis bleeding
    cardiovascular compromise
    ventilatory compromise

  46. Decorticate posturing involves:

    47. Your answer:
    flexion of the upper and lower extremities
    flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities
    extension of the upper and lower extremities
    extension of the upper extremities and flexion of the lower extremities

  47. The two conditions that aggravate cerebral edema are:

    48. Your answer:
    hypotension and hypoxia
    hypoxia and hypercarbia
    hypotension and bradycardia
    hypotension and hypercarbia

  48. Blisters are associated with:

    49. Your answer:
    a fourth degree burn
    a second degree burn
    a first degree burn
    a third degree burn

  49. When sections of bone are crushed and fragmented, it is called:

    50. Your answer:
    a transverse fracture
    a comminuted fracture
    an impacted fracture
    a greenstick fracture

  50. Paralysis of one side of the body is called:

    51. Your answer:
    hemiplegia
    paraplegia
    paresis
    quadriplegia

  51. A last sign of tension pneumothorax is:

    52. Your answer:
    shifting of the trachea toward the affected side
    shifting of the trachea away from the affected side
    severe dyspnea
    none of the above

  52. In caring for a burn patient who is in need of fluid resuscitation, which of the solutions listed below should you use?

    53. Your answer:
    normal saline
    1/2 normal saline
    D50W
    D5W

  53. In attending to a burn patient, you find that he received burns to his left leg and thigh circumferentially, as well as to his genitalia. Using the rule of nines, what percentage of his body area is involved?

    54. Your answer:
    27 percent
    10 percent
    18 percent
    19 percent

  54. Fractures of the pelvis that involve the ring are often associated with blood lost of:

    55. Your answer:
    250 mL
    500 mL
    1000 mL
    more than 2000 mL

  55. The intravenous solution 1/2 normal saline is considered to be:

    56. Your answer:
    hypotonic
    acidotic
    hypertonic
    isotonic

  56. A solution that draws fluid from the cells into the vascular spaces when administered to a normally hydrated person is termed:

    57. Your answer:
    a colloid solution
    an isotonic solution
    a hypotonic solution
    a hypertonic solution

  57. Place in order of speed the following mechanism for acid-base balance. 1. The renal system 2. The buffer system 3. The respiratory system

    58. Your answer:
    2,3,1
    1,3,2
    1,2,3
    3,2,1

  58. When a red blood cell is placed into a (an) ___________ solution, it loses water to the surronding solution and shrinks.

    59. Your answer:
    hypertonic
    ultratonic
    isotonic
    hypotonic

  59. All of the following are cations EXCEPT:

    60. Your answer:
    sodium
    chloride
    calcium
    potassium

  60. You have been instructed to establish an IV lifeline in an elderly female experiencing heart failure. The preferred IV solution and administration set for this patient would be:

    61. Your answer:
    normal saline (0.9 percent), macrodrip
    lactated ringer's solution, macrodrip
    whole blood, volutrol
    5 percent dextrose in water, microdrip

  61. A microdrip administration set generally delivers _______ drops/mL

    62. Your answer:
    15
    30
    60
    90

  62. When it is desirable to administer a fluid that will rapidly move out of the intravascular space, you would select:

    63. Your answer:
    D50W
    Lactated Ringer's solution
    0.45% normal saline
    0.9% normal saline

  63. Which acid-base disturbance would you anticipate in a patient with a severe frail chest:

    64. Your answer:
    respiratory acidosis
    metabolic acidosis
    metabolic alkalosis
    respiratory alkalosis

  64. Depolarization of the ventricles is _____ of a normal ECG tracing.

    65. Your answer:
    indicated by the P-R interval
    indicated by the P wave
    indicated by the T wave
    indicated by the QRS complex

  65. The top of the heart is known as the:

    66. Your answer:
    base
    pericardium
    apex
    arch

  66. The thickest chamber of the heart is the:

    67. Your answer:
    right ventricle
    left ventricle
    right atria
    left atria

  67. Blood is pumped to the systemic circulation from which chamber?

    68. Your answer:
    left ventricle
    right ventricle
    left atria
    right atria

  68. Which of the following is the dominant pacemaker of the heart?

    69. Your answer:
    SA node
    AV node
    purkinje system
    AV junction

  69. The P wave of the normal EKG corresponds to which of the following phenomenon?

    70. Your answer:
    Atrila depolarization
    S-A node firing
    Atrial repolarization
    Venticular depolorization

  70. A pateint is found in asystole. The most appropriate and immediate intervention indicated is:

    71. Your answer:
    precordial thump
    administer epinephrine
    defibrillate at 200-300 joules
    start CPR

  71. Which of the following is the origin of the drug lidocaine?

    72. Your answer:
    plant
    synthetic
    animal
    mineral

  72. What is the study of drug action upon the body called?

    73. Your answer:
    pharmacokinetics
    synergism
    pharmacology
    pharmacodynamics

  73. Drug removal from the vascular system is done by the _______________.

    74. Your answer:
    kidneys
    liver
    lungs and intestinal tract
    all of the above

  74. The unique characteristics of a drug on an individual is called:

    75. Your answer:
    synergism
    cumulative
    refractory
    idiosyncracy

  75. In most cases drugs used in the field are for:

    76. Your answer:
    unconscious states
    hemosynamic emergencies
    allergic reactions
    cardiovascular emergencies

  76. ______________ is the combined action of two drugs. It is much stronger that the effects of either one.

    77. Your answer:
    synegism
    hypersensitivity
    untoward reaction
    idiosyncrasy

  77. What drug blocks the action of the sympathetic nervous system?

    78. Your answer:
    dopaminerolytic
    vagalytic
    sympatholytic
    parasympathomimetic

  78. Which drug in the following list can be given via the ET tube?

    79. Your answer:
    atropine
    naloxone
    epinephrine
    allof the above

  79. Place the following metic prefixes in order from smallest to largest. 1. deci 2. milli 3. micro, 4. kilo 5. centi

    80. Your answer:
    5,3,4,2,1
    3,2,5,1,4
    2,5,3,4,1
    2,3,5,1,4

  80. The name Narcan is an example of which of the following?

    81. Your answer:
    official name
    chemical name
    beneric name
    trade name

  81. The second stage of labor begins when the:

    82. Your answer:
    amniotic sac ruptures
    placenta delivers
    baby moves into the birth canal
    cervix starts to dilate

  82. Spontaneous respirations should begin within _______ after delivery.

    83. Your answer:
    45 seconds
    30 seconds
    2 minutes
    1 minute

  83. The muscular organ that protects the fetus is called the:

    84. Your answer:
    uterus
    fundus
    unbilicus
    placenta

  84. A premature baby is one that is less than 5.5 lbs or is born before the _____ month.

    85. Your answer:
    8th
    7th
    9th
    6th

  85. An APGAR score of 0 to 3 represents ________ distress.

    86. Your answer:
    moderate
    mild
    no
    severe

  86. When the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery it is called:

    87. Your answer:
    abruptio placenta
    endometriosis
    post partum hemorrage
    placenta previa

  87. In an ectopic pregnancy, the:

    88. Your answer:
    egg is not implanted at all
    uterus does not expand adequately to hold the detus
    uterus does not have sufficient nutrients to sustain pregnancy
    egg is implanted outside the uterus

  88. Normal headfirst birth is called _______ delivery.

    89. Your answer:
    ectopic
    prolapsed
    cephalic
    breech

  89. To assist in delivering the baby's upper shoulder, you should:

    90. Your answer:
    support the baby's head
    pull on the baby's head
    guide the baby's head upward
    guide the baby's head downward

  90. The first clamp placed on the umbilical cord should be ________ inches from the baby.

    91. Your answer:
    12
    5
    10
    2

  91. Uncontrolled diabetes may lead to:

    92. Your answer:
    metabolic shock
    neurogenic shock
    anaphylactic shock
    psychogenic shock

  92. An example of psychogenic shock is:

    93. Your answer:
    a stroke
    simple fainting
    paranoia
    spinal shock

  93. Respiratory shock is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

    94. Your answer:
    severe blood loss
    chest trauma
    spinal injury
    airway obstruction

  94. An early indicator of shock may be:

    95. Your answer:
    dry skin
    constricted pupils
    decrease in pulse
    restlessness and anxiety

  95. Hypovolemic shock in an adult may result from a loss of:

    96. Your answer:
    2 cups of blood
    1 pint of blood
    2 units of blood
    500 cc of blood

  96. The vital signs of a patient in shock should ideally be checked:

    97. Your answer:
    every 20 minutes
    every 15 minutes
    every 5 minutes
    every 10 minutes

  97. An absolute contraindication for the use of MAST would be:

    98. Your answer:
    pregnancy
    pulmonary edema
    evisceration
    an impaled object

  98. Which of the following fractures would be expected to account for the greatest blood loss?

    99. Your answer:
    humerus
    pelvis
    facial
    femur

  99. Which of the following steps in emergency care should be taken first:

    100. Your answer:
    treat for shock
    open and maintain an airway
    control severe bleeding
    re-establish circulation

  100. Treatment for shock would include:

    101. Your answer:
    administering low concentration oxygen
    giving the pateint water to drink
    letting the patient walk to improve circulation
    none of the above

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