EFMB Practice Test 2

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  1. Without adequate treatment, a second or third degree burn of more than 30 percent is generally fatal to adults.

    2. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  2. You must check for entry and exit wounds on electrical burn patients.

    3. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  3. Patients with excessive burns require fluid replacement. Oral fluids are preferred over large bore IV fluids.

    4. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  4. Impalement injuries are treated by leaving the impaled object in place and providing a bulky, padded dressing around it.

    5. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  5. Battle's sign is associated with what type of injury?

    6. Your answer:
    Closed head injuries
    Chest injuries
    Pelvis injuries
    Abdominal injuries

  6. Morphine increases intracranial pressure and decreases the patients level of consciousness and therefore should NOT be given to head wound patients.

    7. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  7. An impaled object through the cheek should be removed before attempting to control the bleeding.

    8. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  8. How much longer than the patients height should the spine board be?

    9. Your answer:
    At least 12 inches
    At least 2 feet
    The spine board is less than the patients height
    At least 4 inches

  9. In what type of injury are ligaments partially torn?

    10. Your answer:
    Fracture
    Sprain
    Dislocation
    Strain

  10. Strains are soft-tissue injuries or muscle spasms around a joint.

    11. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  11. Severely angulated fractures of long bones should be straightened before splinting.

    12. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  12. MAST could be used to immobilize a tibial fracture.

    13. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  13. Apply a sterile dressing to the open wound of a compound fracture before immobilizing with an air splint.

    14. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  14. Traction splints are used to immobilize and maintain steady traction on the fracture or dislocation of ____________.

    15. Your answer:
    Low extremities only
    Upper and lower extremities
    Thoracic vertebrae
    Upper extremities only

  15. For best results, a team of three individuals are needed to apply the Thomas leg splint.

    16. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  16. Which choice best describes a comminuted fracture?

    17. Your answer:
    The fracture crosses the bone at an oblique angle
    A fracture associated with twisting injuries, the fracture has an appearance of a spring
    The bone is fragmented into more than two pieces (splintered or crushed)
    The fracture cuts across the bone at right angles to its long axis

  17. The most common type of shock on the battlefield is ________________________.

    18. Your answer:
    Septic
    Neurogenic
    Anaphylactic
    Hypovolemic

  18. Normal capillary refill should take:

    19. Your answer:
    Less than 2 seconds
    6-8 seconds
    3-4 seconds
    4.-5 seconds

  19. Antishock garments can be used on pregnant females if the abdominal compartment can be left uninflated.

    20. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  20. Removal of the MAST garment should be done only in a definitive treatment facility.

    21. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  21. Which technique of opening the airway is the safest if a neck injury is suspected?

    22. Your answer:
    Jaw thrust method
    Held tilt-chin lift method
    Jaw thrust-chin lift method
    Head tile-neck lift method

  22. Vaseline gauze can be used instead of the plastic wrapper to occlude an open chest wounds.

    23. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  23. What type of seizure is characterized by loss of consciousness and an intense tonic-clonic activity?

    24. Your answer:
    Petit mal
    Focal
    Grand mal
    Status epilepticus

  24. In a mass casualty situation, where would you place a patient with severe abdominal wound and perforated organs?

    25. Your answer:
    Delayed
    Routine
    Urgent
    Expectant

  25. Head wound patients may NOT be given water to drink but patients with open abdominal wounds can drink water.

    26. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  26. Cravats added to the dressing of an open abdominal wound should be tied __________.

    27. Your answer:
    on the same side as the dressing ties
    on the side opposite the dressing ties
    on the patients back
    on top of the dressing

  27. Which statment best describes bandaging eye injuries?

    28. Your answer:
    Always bandage both eyes
    Only the injured eye needs to be bandaged
    Bandage both eyes, unless the patient needs to see to exit a hazardous surrounding
    Only the uninjuried eye

  28. Hot food should be kept at or above ____degrees Fahrenheit and cold foods should be kept at or below _____ degrees Fahrenheit.

    29. Your answer:
    145 and 45, respectively
    140 and 35, respectively
    145 and 35, respectively
    140 and 45, respectively

  29. Pale wet skin, dizziness, extreme thrist and muscle cramps are the signs and symptoms of:

    30. Your answer:
    Heat stroke
    Excessive sweating
    Heat cramps
    Heat exhaustion

  30. Which type of heat injury is a medical emergency?

    31. Your answer:
    Heat stroke
    Heat exhaustion
    Heat cramps
    excessive sweating

  31. A soldier immersed in water for treatment of heat stroke should remain there until body temperature cools to ____ degrees Fahrenheit.

    32. Your answer:
    98.6
    95
    100
    102

  32. Treatment of frostbite may include:

    33. Your answer:
    All of the other choices are correct
    Rewarming the area by placing the affected area against a warm body
    Expose the affected area to an open fire
    Rewarming the affected area by massaging

  33. Which type of cold injury is a MEDICAL EMERGENCY?

    34. Your answer:
    Frostbite and hypothermia
    Hypothermia
    No cold injury is a medical emergency
    Frostbite

  34. What type of spider has a redish hourglass-shaped figure on the underside of its abdomen?

    35. Your answer:
    Black widow
    Brown recluse
    Turantula
    Red spinner

  35. Which of the following treatment categories would include patients suffering from cardiorespiratory arrest?

    36. Your answer:
    Immediate
    Delayed
    Expectant
    Minimal

  36. Which of the following treatment catagories would include patients suffering from a severe penetrating abdominal wound?

    37. Your answer:
    Delayed
    Minimal
    Immediate
    Expectant

  37. Which of the following treatment categories would include patients suffering from partial thickness burns of less than 20% BSA?

    38. Your answer:
    Expectant
    Minimal
    Delayed
    Immediate

  38. Ointments or grease are recommended when dressing burns for further protection from infection and to ease the removal of the bandage.

    39. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  39. The percent of body surface area burned is estimated by using the:

    40. Your answer:
    Severity classification - ie. first degree, second degree and third drgree
    Sorting process
    Guyton's BSA Rule
    Rule of Nines

  40. An impalement injury to the right eye should be treated by:

    41. Your answer:
    Removing the object and bandaging only the wounded eye
    Leaving the object in place and bandaging both eyes
    Leaving the object in place and bandaging only the wounded eye
    Removing the object and bandaging both eyes

  41. The brain is protected from injury by:

    42. Your answer:
    The skull, the meninges and the cerebrospinal fluid
    The skull only, and NEITHER the cerebrospinal fluid NOR the meninges
    The skull and the meninges only, NOT the cerebrospinal fluid
    The skull and the cerebrospinal fluid only, NOT the meninges

  42. Which of the following statements concerning burn patients is false?

    43. Your answer:
    Black or carbon-blecked sputum may indicate inhalation burns
    It is important to determine the cause of the patient's burn
    Respiratory function must be assessed frequently due to swelling and reduced respiratory function
    Narcotics should be administered frequently and in large amounts to alleviate the aptient's pain

  43. Battle's sign is:

    44. Your answer:
    Blood oozing from the nose or ear
    Ecchymosis in the solf tissue under the eyes
    CSF leakage from an ear or head wound
    Ecchymosis behind the ears

  44. Which patient should not be given morphine?

    45. Your answer:
    Open wound of the femur
    Gunshot wound to the abdomen
    Head wound
    Burn patient

  45. An injury in which ligaments are partially torn is a:

    46. Your answer:
    Dislocation
    Fracture
    Sprain
    Strain

  46. Types of shock include:

    47. Your answer:
    Hypovolemic, traumatic, anaphylactic, neurogenic and septic
    Traumatic, cardiogenic, neurogenic, anaphylactic, and septic
    Traumatic, cardiogenic, reurogenic, anaphylactic and hypovolemic
    Hypovolemic, cardiogenic, anaphylactic, neurogenic and septic

  47. In _______ hemorrhage the pulse rate is above 100 with rapid breathing (tachypnea) and the systolic pressure is normal with an increased diasystolic pressure. The acute blood loss is 20-25% of the total circulation volume, or about 1000-1250 cc.

    48. Your answer:
    Class 4
    Class 2
    Class 1
    Class 3

  48. General principles of splinting and immobilization include all of the following except:

    49. Your answer:
    MAST can be used as splint for massive trauma to the lower extremity
    Joints above and below the fracture must be immobilized
    Severely angulated fractures of long bones should be straightened before splinting
    Splint them as they lie

  49. An absolute contradiction to the use of MAST is:

    50. Your answer:
    Pregnancy
    Fractured lower extremity
    Systolic blood pressure less than 80 mmHG
    Congestive heart failure

  50. Rapid deflation of MAST is the equivalent to losing ____ units of blood.

    51. Your answer:
    1
    4
    2
    3

  51. Signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock which differentiate it from the other forms of shock include:

    52. Your answer:
    Dry, warm, flushed skin
    Rapid pulse with low blood pressure
    Edema of the face and tongue
    Faintness or coma

  52. In an emergency situation, how long should pressure points, pressure dressings and elevation be used to control bleeding before a tourniquet is applied?

    53. Your answer:
    2-3 minutes
    Until one dressing is soaked through and no signs of clotting are evident
    5 minutes
    Unitl two field dressings are soaked through and no signs of clotting are evident

  53. Securely taping all sides of a dressing to provide an occlusive seal for a sucking chest wound can result in a(n)

    54. Your answer:
    Air embolisu
    Hemothorax
    Tension pneumothorax
    Hemopneumothorax

  54. Signs/symptoms of an acute abdomen include all but the following:

    55. Your answer:
    High blood pressure
    Rapid, shallow breathing
    A tense abdomen
    Tachycardia

  55. According to the principles of triage, the two immediate threats to life are:

    56. Your answer:
    Cardiac failure and shock
    Asphyxia and hemorrhage
    Shock and respiratory failure
    Rapid pulse with low blood pressure

  56. The ABC's of triage stand for:

    57. Your answer:
    Airway, Breathing and Cardiac
    Asphyxia, Bleeding and Care for Shock
    Airway, Bleeding and Control Shock
    Airway, Breathing, and Circulation

  57. The difficult and challenging task of performing triage in a situation involving several casualties is conducted in several rounds.

    58. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  58. A good evaluation performed during triage is meant to confirm a condition and not to discover one.

    59. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  59. Your eyes and ears are part of the tools used while performing a complete patient assessment.

    60. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  60. Look, listen, and feel are techniques used for patient assessment

    61. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  61. ________ skin color is associated with carbon monoxide poisoning.

    62. Your answer:
    Mottled
    White
    Red
    Blue

  62. Overclassification of casualties during the assignment of medical evaluation could result in unnecessary commitment of evacuation assets.

    63. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  63. The single biggest factor in determining whether ground or air transportation can be employed for medical evacuation is:

    64. Your answer:
    Resources available
    Weather
    Medical expertise available
    Tactical situation

  64. Field medical care concerns itself with the physical health of the soldier and not the mental health.

    65. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  65. Minor sunburn is an example of what degree of burn?

    66. Your answer:
    First
    Second
    Third
    Fourth

  66. Infection develops in which phase of second and third degree burns?

    67. Your answer:
    Phase 4
    Phase 2
    Phase 3
    Phase 1

  67. Select the INCORRECT statement

    68. Your answer:
    Coagulum on second degree burns and eschar on third degree burns reduces fluid loss from the surface
    Edema associated with burns can continue for 2-3 days
    First, second and third degree burns are all considered open wounds
    In second and thrid degree burns (particularly third degree) there is destruction of red blood cells

  68. Depending on the percent BSA, burns are classified as:

    69. Your answer:
    Primary, secondary, and tertiary
    Minimal, moderate and extensive
    Permanent and temporary
    Urgent, immediate and priority

  69. Select the INCORRECT statement regarding the treatment for shock of a patient with greater than 20 percent BSA of burns:

    70. Your answer:
    Elevate the head and neck if those areas are burned
    Elevate only the non-burned extremities
    Shock in burn patients is caused by the loss of large amounts of fluids through the burned area.
    Monitor the patient closely for respiratory difficulty

  70. With the best of care and treatment conditions, more than 75 percent of patients with extensive burns are expected to survive. Therefore, these patients have priority for fluid replacment, dressing and other medical aids.

    71. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  71. An object that has penetrated the chest wall can cause a pneumothorax, tension pneumothorax or hemothorax

    72. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  72. Since there is no danger in perforating an internal organ when there is an impalment of an extremity, you should remove the impaled object before applying the dressing

    73. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  73. Objects impaled in limbs require that the limb be splinted in the same manner as a fracture.

    74. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  74. Head wounds are considered "open" only if the dura mater is perforated.

    75. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  75. While assessing a patient you notice that the pupils are of unequal size although neither eye is obviously injured. You therefore assume some sort of brain impairment has happened.

    76. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  76. Lacerations of the scalp bleed profusely because the blood vessels do not constrict and retract as do those of other body parts.

    77. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  77. Which of the following statments regarding the treatment for shock of a head wound patient is false:

    78. Your answer:
    Morphine can increase intracranial pressure and can not be given to head wound patients.
    Do not give fluids by mouth
    Initiate fluids at a full-open rate to compensate for fluids loss due to profuse bleeding
    Do not use the head-down position

  78. Because facial injuries may tend to be quite disfiguring, the medical specialist may apply dressings to these wounds first, forgetting the priorities of treatment

    79. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  79. The most vital and vulnerable part of the body anatomy is the

    80. Your answer:
    Back
    Abdomen
    Neck
    Chest cavity

  80. Morphine can NOT be given to patients with neck injuries.

    81. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  81. Which vertebrae are located in the neck?

    82. Your answer:
    Lumbar vertebrae
    Sacrial vertebrae
    Cervical vertebrae
    Thoracic vertebrae

  82. A soldier experiencing pain in the shoulder region without signs of shoulder injury accompanied by pain of the neck should be treated as:

    83. Your answer:
    A possible battle-fatigue paient
    A cardiac patient
    A neck injury
    A closed chest injury

  83. The most effective method of stabilizing a fractured humerus is the

    84. Your answer:
    Traction splint
    Thomas leg splint
    Sling and swathe
    MAST

  84. Treat a dislocated ankle as if it were a fracture-immobilize the ankle with a splint.

    85. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  85. Which of the following is NOT a sign of impaired circulation due to a bandage being tied too tight:

    86. Your answer:
    Paleness
    Swelling
    Pain
    Warm skin

  86. Which type of bandage stretches but is not elastic and molds around irregular and hard to bandage areas?

    87. Your answer:
    Ace bandage
    Stockinette bandage
    Cling bandage
    Roller guaze

  87. What type of bandage is applied to hold pressure dressings in place over the end of a finger, fist, toe or stump?

    88. Your answer:
    Spiral bandage
    Recurrent bandage
    Figure-of-8 bandage
    Double T-binder

  88. When applying an arm sling, the upper end of the triangle is placed:

    89. Your answer:
    Over the shoulder on the injuried side and tied on the injured side
    Over the shoulder on the uninjured side and tied on the uninjured side
    Over the shoulder on the injured side and tied on the unjuried side
    Over the shoulder on the uninjuried side and tied on the injuried side

  89. When applying a sling for an arm injury with the shoulder involved the ends are tied in the center of the back.

    90. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  90. Which of the following is NOT a major cause of shock?

    91. Your answer:
    The heart is damaged and fails to work as a pump
    Chemical changes in the bloods makeup makes perfusion difficult
    Blood vessels dilate so that the blood within them is insufficient to provide adequate circulation
    Blood loss causes the volume of fluid within the vascular container to be insufficient

  91. The most common type of shock on the battlefield is

    92. Your answer:
    Neurogenic
    Traumatic
    Hypovolemic
    Septic

  92. Capillary filling is normal if they take less than 3 seconds to refill.

    93. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  93. What type of shock does the patient usually have an elevated body temperature?

    94. Your answer:
    Cardiogenic
    Traumatic
    Septic
    Hypovolemic

  94. Chemical burns of the eyes should be treated by flushing with:

    95. Your answer:
    Large amounts of saline for 20 minutes
    Large amounts of water for 10 minutes
    Large amounts of saline for 10 minutes
    Large amounts of water for 20 minutes

  95. Local application of heat is used for all except the following:

    96. Your answer:
    To relieve inflammation
    To reduce edema following an injury
    To promote localization of purulent material
    To relieve pain due to muscle spasms

  96. Signs and symptoms of deep frostbite include:

    97. Your answer:
    Extreme pain in the affected area
    Development of blisters 24-36 hours after exposure followed by flaking of the skin in large sheets
    Redness followed by powdery flaking of the skin
    Loss of feeling in the affected area

  97. A dark brown violin shaped area on the back distinquishes the:

    98. Your answer:
    Brown recluse spider
    Rocky Mountain tick
    Black widow spider
    Scorpion

  98. The signs and symptoms of a sting from the deadly species of scorpions include all of the following EXCEPT:

    99. Your answer:
    Muscle spasms
    "Pins and needles" sensation at the sting site
    Swelling or discoloration
    Impaired speech and drowsiness

  99. Remove the stinger from a bee sting by:

    100. Your answer:
    Simply pull the stinger out with fingertips
    Rubbing area with sterile 4X4
    Scraping the stinger with the fingernail or knifeblade
    Grasping the stinger with forceps and gently pulling

  100. A star-shaped area of deep purple color 3-4 days following the bite is seen with the bite from a

    101. Your answer:
    Wasp
    Fire ant
    Brown recluse spider
    Black widow spider

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