EFMB Practice Test 3

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  1. A star-shaped area of deep purple color 3-4 days following the bite is seen with the bite from a:

    2. Your answer:
    brown recluse spider
    fire ant
    wasp
    black widow spider

  2. When treating a poisonous snake bite:

    3. Your answer:
    Incise the wound between each bite mark and suck the poison out with your mouth
    Incise the wound between each bite mark and withdraw the poisonwith a bulb syringe
    Apply a tourniquet between the bite and the heart
    Place constricting bands one or two fingers width above and below the bite site

  3. Which poisonous plant is NOT recognized by three leaflets?

    4. Your answer:
    poison releaf
    poison oak
    poison ivy
    poison sumac

  4. Urushiol is the toxic ingredient in:

    5. Your answer:
    scorpion bites
    poision ivy, poison oak and poison sumac
    wasp stings
    bee stings

  5. What are the three types of nuclear injuries?

    6. Your answer:
    burns, fractures and lacerations
    first, second and third degree
    minimal, moderate and extreme
    blast, thermal and radiation

  6. The three syndromes associated with radiation injuries include all of the following EXCEPT:

    7. Your answer:
    central nervous system
    gastrointestinal
    hematopoletic
    thermal dermatologic

  7. What is the first phase of radiation sickness, characterized by the rapid onset of nausea, vomiting and malaise?

    8. Your answer:
    clinical period
    dormate period
    latent period
    acute incapacitation

  8. Field treament of radiation sickness by the medical specialist consists of fluid replacement, symptomatic care and evacuation.

    9. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  9. Below are four statements about biological agent casualties. Select the statement which is INCORRECT.

    10. Your answer:
    Some toxins cause massive mucous membrance tissue hemorrhage
    The treatment for toxins is symptomatic
    Biological agent-induced diseases can not be treated the same as nonwarfare agent induced diseases
    Synthesized agents are known as microtoxins (toxins)

  10. What type of agent is lewisite?

    11. Your answer:
    nerve
    blister
    choking
    blood

  11. You are light-headed, have slurred speech and a dry mouth. You notice inappropriate laughter in others. What immediate action should you take?

    12. Your answer:
    mask
    notify your platoon sergeant or leader
    move to shade, loosen your clothing and drink fluids
    nothing

  12. Which of the following is NOT an early symptom of nerve agent poisoning?

    13. Your answer:
    loss of bladder/bowel control
    runny nose
    tightness in the chest
    reduced vision

  13. Cherry red skin is a sign of:

    14. Your answer:
    blister agent
    blood agent
    nerve agent
    choking agent

  14. Intravenous sodium thiosulfate and sodium nitrite are used to treat:

    15. Your answer:
    blood agents
    choking agents
    blister agents
    nerve agents

  15. The most vulnerable body part to blister agents is/are:

    16. Your answer:
    the lungs
    the skin
    the eyes
    the mouth

  16. Four hours after an artillery attack several soldiers in your platoon complain of a sunburn-like redness, itching and headache. You suspect these signs and symptoms are caused by:

    17. Your answer:
    radiation exposure
    nerve agent exposure
    blister agent exposure
    fire ant bites

  17. For patients with severe symptoms of choking agent poisoning, encourage physical activity to "flush" the lungs with clean air.

    18. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  18. The carotid pulse can be checked by placing your thumb beside the patient's Adams apple.

    19. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  19. Which of the following is NOT a severe sign of choking agent poisoning:

    20. Your answer:
    tachycardia
    cherry red skin
    production of frothy, blood-tinged sputum
    rapid, shallow breathing

  20. Artifical respiration on a patient with a crushed faced can be performed by the:

    21. Your answer:
    back pressure arm lift method
    mouth to nose method
    mouth to mouth method
    chest pressure arm lift method

  21. When performing the chest pressure air lift method of artifical respiration the casualty is placed:

    22. Your answer:
    on his stomach
    on his left side
    on his right side
    on his back

  22. The breastbone is depressed_____inches while performing chest compressions in CPR.

    23. Your answer:
    1/2 to 1 inch
    3 to 4 inches
    2 to 4 inches
    1 1/2 to 2 inches

  23. In two-man CPR, CPR should never be interrupted for more than _____ seconds

    24. Your answer:
    5
    20
    10
    15

  24. In performing one-man CPR, a pulse check is performed:

    25. Your answer:
    before attempting to remove an airway obstruction
    immediately when the casualty is found
    after every 4 cycles of compressions and ventilations
    both immediately when the casualty is found and after every four cycles of compressions/ventilations

  25. Which carry is especially useful in transporting a conscious patient with a head or foot injury a moderate distance?

    26. Your answer:
    four hand seat carry
    two man supported carry
    fore and aft carry
    pistol belt carry

  26. The most vesatile litter for field use is the:

    27. Your answer:
    standard litter
    poleless semiregid litter
    stokes metal litter
    poleless nonrigid litter

  27. Which litter patient should be carried head first?

    28. Your answer:
    the patient with a fractured lower extremity going uphill or upstairs
    any patient being carried over level terrain
    any patient being carried downhill or downstairs
    the patient with a fractured lower extremity going downhill or downstairs

  28. The sequence for loading four litters patients in an M725 is:

    29. Your answer:
    upper right, upper left, lower right, lower left
    upper right, lower right, upper left, lower left
    upper left, lower left, upper right, lower right
    upper left, upper right, lower left, lower right

  29. A 48 hours backlog should be made and used for patients undergoing which movement classification of air-evacuation?

    30. Your answer:
    urgent
    priority
    routine
    delayed

  30. Which classes of helicopters can be used for air transport of litter patients?

    31. Your answer:
    UH and CH
    CH
    OH
    UH

  31. What size landing site should be the minimum used to land the CH-47 Chinook?

    32. Your answer:
    30 meter diameter
    40 meter diameter
    25 meter diameter
    50 meter diameter

  32. Where should a patient with a Thomas leg splint be loaded on a UH-1H/V helicopter?

    33. Your answer:
    bottom tier
    top tier
    directly on the floor
    middle tier

  33. The two-man carry is used by a litter squad to carry a casualty:

    34. Your answer:
    uphill or downhill
    over obstacles
    over smooth, level terrain
    through narrow trails or passages

  34. The litter post carry is used by a litter squad to carry a casualty:

    35. Your answer:
    over smooth, level terrain
    through narrow trails or passages
    uphill or downhill
    over rough terrain

  35. Supplies from a water distribution point should have a chlorine residual of ______ parts per million

    36. Your answer:
    1
    10
    5
    2

  36. The preferred method to disinfect raw water in your canteen is:

    37. Your answer:
    boiling in water
    sodium tablets
    chlorine ampules
    iodine tablets

  37. How much calcium hypochloride should be added to a 36-gallon lyster bag to raise the chlorine residual of a raw water supply to at least 5 ppm?

    38. Your answer:
    1 messkit spoonful
    3 ampules
    1 ampule
    2 ampules

  38. You diagnose a frostbitten foot in one of the soldiers in your unit. Your action includes:

    39. Your answer:
    placing the frostbitten part in hot water
    rubbing the frostbitten area with snow
    thawing the frozen part regardless of availability of medical treatment
    removing tight clothing/boots from the injured area

  39. During "continuous operations" all individuals should be allowed at least ____ hours uniterrupted sleep per 24 hour period.

    40. Your answer:
    1-2 hours
    3-4 hours
    2-3 hours
    4-5 hours

  40. When using the 2-gallon sprayer to spray insecticide:

    41. Your answer:
    eye protection should be worn
    gloves should be worn
    the protective mask should be worn
    gloves and the protective mask should be worn

  41. When entering a radio net in which you do not normally operate, you must first:

    42. Your answer:
    call station you want to send a message
    request to enter the net
    decide call sign and frequency of the NCS
    authenticate

  42. Volume control switches on radio sets should be placed in what position?

    43. Your answer:
    first click from off
    full off
    comfortable listening
    full on

  43. Before starting or stopping a vehicle equipped with a radio set, the operate must:

    44. Your answer:
    tie down antennaes
    request to enter/leave net
    make communication check
    shut off radio set

  44. The polarity of batteries used with TA-312 telephone sets are installed how?

    45. Your answer:
    in a parallel circuit (both positives up)
    battery polarity doesn't matter (use either series or a parallel circuit)
    in a parallel circuit (both negatives up)
    in a series circuit (one positive up, one negative up)

  45. Your unit has been exposed to a nuclear burst. Soldiers equipment and supplies may be radioactive. The RADIAC instrument you would use to determine presence or absence of radiation is the:

    46. Your answer:
    IM174A/PD
    PRC-77
    AN/PDR27
    IM93

  46. The last action you take when putting on the M40 protective mask is:

    47. Your answer:
    stop breating
    close your mask carrier
    adjust shoulder straps
    put on headgear

  47. Which of the following chemical agents would cause skin blisters and damage the respiratory tract?

    48. Your answer:
    VX
    AC
    HL
    GB

  48. The Code of Conduct deals with which of the following?

    49. Your answer:
    guidelines for soldiers during combat and actions if captured by the enemy
    guidelines for officers and NCOs in dealing with subordinates
    guidelines for soldiers dealing with contractors or private industry
    guidelines for commanders when administering punishment under the UCMJ

  49. If you are captured by the enemy, under the Code of Conduct, which of the following are you NOT required to do?

    50. Your answer:
    give only name, rank, service number and date of birth
    take advantage of escape opportunities whenever they arise
    obey the orders of the ranking military individual
    sign a parole agreement to get release from capativity

  50. When probing a minefield, which of the following procedures should NOT be used?

    51. Your answer:
    insert your bayonet into the ground at an angle less than 45 degrees to locate mines
    move on hands and knees
    when an object is located, remove the earth to find out what the object is
    probe every 2 inches across a 1 meter path

  51. Perspiration can cause the loss of more than a quart of body fluids in an hour.

    52. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  52. "Dry land Drowning" is a term associated with what chemical agent poisoning?

    53. Your answer:
    nerve
    blood
    blister
    choking

  53. If you are caught in a minefield of unknown buried mines, which of the following actions should NOT be taken?

    54. Your answer:
    leave metal behind
    don't panic
    work alone
    move out of the area rapidly

  54. When applying a dressing to an open abdominal wound, you should tie the tails of the dressing:

    55. Your answer:
    at the casualty's side
    along the spine (in the "small" of the back)
    at the side of the bandage
    directly over the bandage

  55. Which statement is true about exposed organs from a casualty with an open abdominal wound?

    56. Your answer:
    hold the exposed organs in place with one hand while placing the bandage on the wound wiht the other
    place the organs on top of the casualty's stomach and under the bandage
    remove as such foreign material as possible before applying bandage
    gently replace organs into the abdominal cavity

  56. Which statement is incorrect? When treating burns:

    57. Your answer:
    do not break the blisters
    do not apply grease or ointment to the burns
    leave the wound open if the field dressing or other sterile dressing is not large enough
    do not place the dressing over the face or gential area

  57. When treating a casualty suffering electrical burns, it is not necessary to remove the electrical source before touching the casualty because your combat boots are nonconductive and act as an electrical ground.

    58. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  58. White phosphorous burns may be treated by covering the wound with mud.

    59. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  59. When treating a heat exhaustion casualty in a chemical environment you should not loosen the casualty's clothing

    60. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  60. Hypothermia may occur from exposure to temperature above freezing.

    61. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  61. Watches, rings, or other jewelry should be removed from the affected limb if the injury is a fracture, burn or snake bite.

    62. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  62. Evacuate a soldier with mild battle fatigue in order to prevent him from further injury.

    63. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  63. Manual evacuations should terminate when either a litter or evacuation vehicle becomes available.

    64. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  64. The type of injury should be considered when determining the type of manual carry to use.

    65. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  65. Which general rule for bearers in manual evacuations is incorrect?

    66. Your answer:
    individual NBC equipment will remain with the casualty
    slide or roll, rather than lift, heavy objects that must be moved
    keep the back straight; use arms and shoulders when pulling a patient
    normally, the casualty's weapon is evacuated with him

  66. Patients may have to manually evacuated before they are evaluated or treated if the situation requires immediate movement for safety purposes.

    67. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  67. Which statement is incorrect regarding rolling a patient from his abdomen to his back to position him for a manual carry?

    68. Your answer:
    kneel at the patients injured side
    place his arms above his head
    cross the ankle further from you over the one closest to you
    place one of your hands on the shoulder farther from you and the other in the area of his hip

  68. Which carry requires the patient to be conscious?

    69. Your answer:
    firemans carry
    pack-strap carry
    arms carry
    saddleback carry

  69. The arms carry is useful for carrying the casualty.

    70. Your answer:
    a long distance (over 300 meters)
    downhill and down stairs
    a short distance (up to 50 meters)
    a moderate distance (50 to 300 meters)

  70. In the pack-strap carry the bearer holds the patients arms:

    71. Your answer:
    around the neck
    around his waist
    by tieing them together loosely about the waist
    in a palms down position

  71. The best one-man carry for long distance (over 300 meters) is the:

    72. Your answer:
    supported carry
    pack-strap carry
    pistol-belt carry
    saddleback carry

  72. The safest two-man carry when there is not time to obtain a spine board for a patient with a back injury is the:

    73. Your answer:
    four-hand seat carry
    two-man carry
    two-man supporting carry
    two-man fore-and-aft carry

  73. Which exit is used when evacuating casualties from the troop compartment of the Bradley Infantry Fighting Vehicle?

    74. Your answer:
    ramp
    cargo hatch
    ramp door
    all of the above

  74. If a patient is secured to a litter with only two straps then they are placed:

    75. Your answer:
    across the chest and across the abdomen
    across the abdomen and across the legs above the knees
    across the chest and across the legs above the knees
    across the chest and across the legs below the knees

  75. Which litter is designed for evacuating patients through deep snow?

    76. Your answer:
    poleless semirigid litter
    standard litter
    ahkio litter
    stokes litter

  76. Select the incorrect statement regarding ambulance loading and unloading.

    77. Your answer:
    patients are always loaded head first
    the most seriously wounded are loaded last and taken off first
    safety is a concern in preventing further injury to the patients in loading and unloading
    patients receiving intranvenous (IV) fluids are loaded in lower berths to provide gravity flow

  77. The patient capacity of the M725, M886/M893 or M1010 1 1/4 ton amublance trucks

    78. Your answer:
    three litter or six ambulatory
    five litter or eight ambulatory
    four litter or eight ambulatory
    four litter or six ambulatory

  78. Select the incorrect statement about loading and unloading buses used as ambulances.

    79. Your answer:
    unload the bus from front to rear
    the most seriously wounded are loaded on last and taken off first
    with the exception of some patient injuries, patients are loaded head first
    two 3-man litter teams are normally required

  79. Manual carries involve the risk of increasing the severity of the patients injuries.

    80. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  80. The M113 armored personnel carrier can be converted to carry four litter or ten ambulatory patients.

    81. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  81. The normal configuration for aeromedical evacuation by the UH-60A Blackhawk provides for:

    82. Your answer:
    4 litter and 1 ambulatory, or 7 ambulatory
    24 litter or 33 ambulatory
    4 litter or 6 ambulatory
    3 litter or 4 amublatory

  82. The maximum litter patient configuration in the UH-1H/V Iroquois provides for ____ litters.

    83. Your answer:
    8
    4
    3
    6

  83. Which helicopter is less suited for smaller/more confined landing areas.

    84. Your answer:
    blackhawk
    cobra
    chinook
    iroquois

  84. When signaled to approach a helicopter, do so:

    85. Your answer:
    from the left or right side at a 90 degree angle to the aircraft
    from the rear of the aircraft at a 45 degree angle
    from the front of the aircraft at a 45 degree angle
    from the front of the aircraft, directly at the nose of the aircraft

  85. Where would you load a patient with a traction splint on the UH-60A Blackhawk?

    86. Your answer:
    on the top pan
    on the bottom pan
    on the middle pan
    directly on the floor

  86. On the UH-1H/V Iroquois, patients with Thomas leg splints are loaded:

    87. Your answer:
    in the bottom tier
    in the middle tier
    in the top tier
    directly on the floor

  87. On the UH-1H/V Iroquois, patients are normally loaded from the top tier down to the bottom tier, with the most seriously injured loaded last.

    88. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  88. The 2 1/2 ton or 5 ton truck is capable of transporting _____ litter patients

    89. Your answer:
    12
    6
    9
    10

  89. A forest or jungle penetrator is a rescue seat used with the internal helicopter hoist and has a maximum capacity of _____ persons.

    90. Your answer:
    4
    3
    1
    2

  90. Select the incorrect statement regarding heat injury countermeasures.

    91. Your answer:
    if your urine is dark yellow you are not drinking enough water
    drink small quantities frequently
    drink water even if you are not thirsty
    do not drink extra water before starting a mission in hot dy climates

  91. If the CH-47 Chinook is loaded with a combination of litter and ambulatory patients, the ambulatory patients should be located to the rear of the litter patients whenever possible.

    92. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  92. How often should you apply insect repellent if you get sweaty?

    93. Your answer:
    every 2 hours
    every hour
    every 8 hours
    every 4 hours

  93. The perferred method for disinfecting a canteen of water is:

    94. Your answer:
    iodine tablets
    chlorine ampules
    boiling
    filtering

  94. How would you use a chlorine ampule to disinfect a canteen of water?

    95. Your answer:
    add 1 ampule to canteen, wait 5 minutes, shake, wait 25 mins
    chlorine ampules can not be used to disinfect a canteen of water
    mix 2 ampules in 1 canteen cup of water, stir, add back to canteen
    mix 1 ampule in 1/2 canteen cup water, stir, add 1 canteen capful to canteen, shake, wait 30 minutes

  95. If possible, how long should you boil water to disinfect it?

    96. Your answer:
    5-10 minute
    30-45 minutes
    1 minute
    10-15 minutes

  96. As a guideline for cold injury countermeasures, leaders should modify or curtail all but mission essential field operations when temperatures are:

    97. Your answer:
    0 degrees Fahrenheit or below
    -20 degrees Fahrenheit or below
    25 degress Fahrenheit or below
    -10 degrees Fahrenheit or below

  97. Soldiers can help prevent urinary tract infections by drinking extra fluids

    98. Your answer:
    TrueFalse

  98. When fesible, set work/rest shifts to give everyone ____ hours of sleep every 24 hours

    99. Your answer:
    4-6
    6-9
    12-14
    8-10

  99. How many cans are normally used in a messkit laundry?

    100. Your answer:
    5
    6
    3
    4

  100. When questioned, a prisoner is required to give:

    101. Your answer:
    name, rank, service number and unit
    name, rank, service number and date of birth
    name, unit, and place of birth
    no information must be given

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